Summary: This master publication provides the complete Chapter-Wise Subjective Question Bank for Class 12 Biology (CBSE & Bihar Board). Featuring 15 subjective questions per chapter (10 Short Answer 2–3M + 5 Long Answer 5M) with official model answers, step marking rubrics, and detailed KaTeX proofs.
Chapter-Wise Distribution (195 Total Questions)
Scoring top marks in subjective theory requires mastering both short 2-mark conceptual reasoning and 5-mark long derivations. Each chapter below includes 10 Short Answer and 5 Long Answer questions with step rubrics.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(b) Why is this type of embryo sac development called monosporic?
(b) इस प्रकार के भ्रूण कोष विकास को एकबीजाणुज (मोनोस्पोरिक) क्यों कहा जाता है?
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1. The Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to form a linear tetrad of four haploid megaspores.
2. Three of the megaspores, usually at the micropylar end, degenerate.
3. The one functional megaspore at the chalazal end enlarges.
4. The nucleus of the functional megaspore undergoes three successive free nuclear mitotic divisions, resulting in eight nuclei.
5. These eight nuclei arrange themselves: three move to the micropylar end to form the egg apparatus (one egg cell and two synergids), three move to the chalazal end to form antipodal cells, and the remaining two nuclei (polar nuclei) are situated in the large central cell below the egg apparatus.
6. Cell walls are then laid down, resulting in a 7-celled, 8-nucleate mature embryo sac.
(b) Monosporic Development:
It is called monosporic because the embryo sac develops from a single functional megaspore out of the four megaspores formed from the megaspore mother cell.
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Endosperm Development: The Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) undergoes repeated mitotic divisions to form a triploid endosperm tissue. Initially, these divisions are free-nuclear, creating a liquid endosperm. Later, cell wall formation occurs, making it cellular. Its primary function is to provide nutrition to the developing embryo.
Embryo Development: The diploid zygote divides mitotically to form the embryo. The development is more organized, proceeding through specific stages (proembryo, globular, heart-shaped, and mature embryo). It develops into the future plant.
Stages of Embryo Development (Dicot):
1. The zygote divides asymmetrically into a larger suspensor cell and a smaller embryonal cell.
2. The embryonal cell divides to form a proembryo.
3. Further divisions lead to a globular-shaped embryo.
4. The globular embryo then develops into a heart-shaped embryo due to the growth of two cotyledons. The suspensor pushes the embryo deep into the endosperm.
This development is called embryogeny.
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1. The Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) is a large diploid cell in the nucellus of the ovule.
2. It undergoes meiosis to form a linear tetrad of four haploid megaspores.
3. Out of these four, three megaspores (usually towards the micropylar end) degenerate.
4. The one functional megaspore (usually towards the chalazal end) enlarges and becomes the first cell of the female gametophyte.
5. Its nucleus undergoes three successive free nuclear mitotic divisions, resulting in 8 nuclei within the same cytoplasm.
6. Cell walls then form, organizing these nuclei into a 7-celled, 8-nucleate embryo sac. This includes: one egg cell and two synergids at the micropylar end (egg apparatus), three antipodal cells at the chalazal end, and one large central cell with two polar nuclei.
(b) Role after fertilization:
* **Synergids:** One synergid guides the pollen tube entry into the embryo sac and degenerates upon its arrival. The other synergid also degenerates shortly after fertilization.
* **Antipodal cells:** These cells provide nutrition to the developing embryo sac and typically degenerate before or soon after fertilization.
(b) What is pollen-pistil interaction and how is it mediated?
(b) परागकण-स्त्रीकेसर संकर्षण क्या है और यह कैसे मध्यस्थित होता है?
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1. Pollen germination: The compatible pollen grain absorbs moisture and nutrients from the stigmatic surface and germinates. The tube cell emerges through a germ pore to form a pollen tube.
2. Pollen tube growth: The pollen tube grows down through the tissues of the stigma and style, guided by chemical signals.
3. Entry into ovule: The pollen tube enters the ovule, usually through the micropyle (porogamy). It then passes through the nucellus and penetrates the embryo sac, typically entering one of the synergids.
4. Discharge of male gametes: The tip of the pollen tube ruptures, releasing the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.
(b) Pollen-Pistil Interaction:
It is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by promotion or inhibition of the pollen. This interaction is mediated by chemical components of the pollen interacting with those of the pistil. If the pollen is compatible (of the right type), the pistil accepts the pollen and promotes post-pollination events. If the pollen is incompatible (of the wrong type), the pistil rejects the pollen by preventing pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the style. This recognition ability is the result of a continuous dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil.
(b) Why is this process significant for the plant?
(c) Name the diploid and triploid structures formed as a result of this process.
(b) यह प्रक्रिया पौधे के लिए क्यों महत्वपूर्ण है?
(c) इस प्रक्रिया के परिणामस्वरूप बनने वाली द्विगुणित और त्रिगुणित संरचनाओं के नाम बताइए।
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1. The pollen tube, carrying two male gametes, enters the ovule and reaches the embryo sac, usually through a synergid.
2. The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.
3. **Syngamy:** One of the male gametes fuses with the egg cell nucleus to form a diploid zygote (2n).
4. **Triple Fusion:** The other male gamete moves towards the central cell and fuses with the two polar nuclei (or the secondary nucleus) to form the triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) (3n).
Since two types of fusion, syngamy and triple fusion, occur in the embryo sac, the phenomenon is termed double fertilization.
(b) Significance:
* It leads to the formation of a zygote which develops into an embryo.
* It results in the formation of the Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN), which develops into the endosperm. The endosperm provides nourishment to the developing embryo, increasing the chances of seed viability and seedling survival.
(c) Structures formed:
* **Diploid (2n):** Zygote
* **Triploid (3n):** Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) which later forms the Endosperm.
Human Reproduction
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
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**Mechanism of Parturition:**
1. **Initiation:** Signals for parturition originate from the fully developed fetus and the placenta, which induce mild uterine contractions called the fetal ejection reflex.
2. **Hormonal Role:** This triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
3. **Positive Feedback Loop:** Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles, causing stronger contractions. This, in turn, stimulates further secretion of oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues, resulting in stronger and stronger contractions.
4. **Expulsion:** This leads to the expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal.
**Initiation of Lactation:**
During pregnancy, the breasts undergo differentiation. After delivery, the sudden drop in progesterone and estrogen levels allows the hormone prolactin (from the pituitary) to act on the mammary glands, stimulating milk production (lactogenesis). The initial milk produced, called colostrum, is rich in antibodies.
(a) Explain the major events that occur in the uterus and ovary during the follicular and luteal phases of the menstrual cycle.
(b) Correlate the uterine and ovarian events with the levels of pituitary (FSH, LH) and ovarian (estrogen, progesterone) hormones during these phases.
(a) आर्तव चक्र के पुटकीय (फॉलिक्यूलर) और पीतपिंडी (ल्यूटियल) प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय में होने वाली प्रमुख घटनाओं की व्याख्या करें।
(b) इन प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय की घटनाओं को पीयूष ग्रंथि (FSH, LH) और अंडाशयी (एस्ट्रोजन, प्रोजेस्टेरोन) हार्मोन के स्तरों के साथ सहसंबद्ध करें।
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**Luteal Phase:** In the ovary, the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum. In the uterus, the endometrium further thickens and its glands become secretory, preparing for implantation. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, causing the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation.
(b) **Follicular Phase:** Gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increase, stimulating follicular development and secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles. Estrogen causes the proliferation of the endometrium.
**Luteal Phase:** The rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) induces rupture of the Graafian follicle and ovulation. After ovulation, the corpus luteum is formed which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. In the absence of fertilization, the decline in progesterone levels causes menstruation.
(a) On which day of the cycle is ovulation most likely to occur?
(b) Describe the specific events that occur in the ovary and uterus during the follicular phase (proliferative phase).
(c) Explain the hormonal changes involving FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone that lead to and follow ovulation.
(a) चक्र के किस दिन अंडोत्सर्ग होने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है?
(b) पुटकीय प्रावस्था (प्रचुरोद्भवी प्रावस्था) के दौरान अंडाशय और गर्भाशय में होने वाली विशिष्ट घटनाओं का वर्णन करें।
(c) FSH, LH, एस्ट्रोजन और प्रोजेस्टेरोन से जुड़े हार्मोनल परिवर्तनों की व्याख्या करें जो अंडोत्सर्ग का कारण बनते हैं और उसके बाद होते हैं।
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(b) Events during the follicular phase:
In the Ovary: The primary follicles grow to become fully mature Graafian follicles. This is stimulated by FSH and LH.
In the Uterus: The endometrium regenerates through proliferation. This is stimulated by the increasing levels of ovarian hormones (estrogen).
(c) Hormonal Changes:
- Before Ovulation: FSH and LH levels gradually increase, stimulating follicular development and estrogen secretion. Estrogen levels rise, peaking just before ovulation. This high level of estrogen triggers a rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) which induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle, leading to ovulation.
- After Ovulation: The remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium.
(b) What is implantation? Explain how the blastocyst gets embedded into the uterine wall.
(c) Name the embryonic layers that are formed during gastrulation.
(b) अंतर्रोपण क्या है? व्याख्या करें कि ब्लास्टोसिस्ट गर्भाशय की दीवार में कैसे अंतःस्थापित होता है।
(c) गैस्ट्रुलेशन के दौरान बनने वाली भ्रूणीय परतों के नाम बताइए।
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1. Acrosomal reaction: The sperm's acrosome releases enzymes (like hyaluronidase) to penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida of the ovum.
2. Cortical reaction: Once a sperm fuses with the ovum's plasma membrane, it induces changes in the zona pellucida that block the entry of additional sperms (polyspermy block).
3. Completion of Meiosis II: The entry of sperm induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte, forming a second polar body and a haploid ovum (ootid).
4. Syngamy: The haploid nucleus of the sperm and that of the ovum fuse together to form a diploid zygote.
(b) Implantation is the process by which the blastocyst attaches to and embeds itself in the endometrium of the uterus. The trophoblast layer of the blastocyst gets attached to the endometrium. The uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst, resulting in it becoming fully embedded in the endometrium.
(c) The three embryonic layers (germ layers) formed during gastrulation are: Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and Endoderm.
(a) On which day of her cycle is she most likely to ovulate? Name the two pituitary hormones that are involved in ovulation.
(b) What happens to the Graafian follicle after ovulation? Describe the hormonal role of the structure formed.
(c) If fertilization does not occur, what changes will take place in the uterus and why?
(a) अपने चक्र के किस दिन उसके अंडोत्सर्ग करने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है? अंडोत्सर्ग में शामिल दो पीयूषिका हार्मोन के नाम बताइए।
(b) अंडोत्सर्ग के बाद ग्राफी पुटक (ग्राफियन फॉलिकल) का क्या होता है? बनी हुई संरचना की हार्मोनल भूमिका का वर्णन करें।
(c) यदि निषेचन नहीं होता है, तो गर्भाशय में क्या परिवर्तन होंगे और क्यों?
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(b) After ovulation, the ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into a yellow glandular structure called the Corpus Luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium, making it receptive to implantation of the fertilized ovum. (2 marks)
(c) If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates. This causes a fall in the level of progesterone, leading to the disintegration of the endometrium. This results in menstruation, marking the start of a new cycle. (1 mark)
Reproductive Health
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
(a) Intra-uterine devices
(b) Structure of testis
(c) Incomplete dominance.
(a) अंतःगर्भाशयी युक्ति
(b) वृषण की संरचना
(c) अपूर्ण प्रभाविता
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(b) Structure of testis: Testes are paired male gonads located in the scrotum. Each testis is covered by a tough connective tissue layer called tunica albuginea. Internally, it is divided into lobules containing seminiferous tubules where spermatogenesis occurs. The interstitial spaces contain Leydig cells that secrete testosterone.
(c) Incomplete dominance: In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other, so the heterozygote shows an intermediate phenotype. Example: In Mirabilis jalapa, red flower crossed with white flower gives pink flowers in the generation. In , the phenotypic ratio is .
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
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1. **Barrier Methods (e.g., Condoms):**
* **Justification:** These are easily available, reversible, and offer the dual protection of preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). They have no hormonal side effects.
* **Mechanism of Action:** They act as a physical barrier, preventing the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract, thus blocking the meeting of sperm and ovum.
2. **Hormonal Contraceptives (e.g., Oral Contraceptive Pills):**
* **Justification:** These are highly effective and reversible. Once the couple decides to have a child, they can simply stop taking the pills. Modern low-dose pills have minimal side effects for most healthy women.
* **Mechanism of Action:** These pills contain hormones (progestogen or a combination of progestogen-estrogen) that inhibit ovulation (release of the egg) and also alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent the entry of sperm.
(b) Explain the general mode of transmission for most STIs.
(c) List any three preventive measures, other than vaccines, that a person can adopt to protect themselves from STIs.
(b) अधिकांश एसटीआई (STIs) के संचरण की सामान्य विधि की व्याख्या करें।
(c) टीकों के अलावा कोई तीन निवारक उपाय सूचीबद्ध करें, जिन्हें कोई व्यक्ति एसटीआई से खुद को बचाने के लिए अपना सकता है।
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* **Disease:** Hepatitis-B
* **Causative Agent:** Hepatitis-B Virus (HBV)
(b) **Mode of Transmission:** Most STIs are transmitted through sexual contact with an infected person. Other modes include sharing of injection needles, surgical instruments with infected persons, transfusion of blood from an infected person, or from an infected mother to the foetus.
(c) **Three Preventive Measures:**
1. Always use condoms during coitus.
2. Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
3. In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with an infection.
(a) Which Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) would be most appropriate for this couple?
(b) Briefly describe the procedure for this technology.
(c) Name and explain one other ART where the fertilization occurs inside the female's body.
(a) इस दंपति के लिए कौन सी सहायक जनन प्रौद्योगिकी (ART) सबसे उपयुक्त होगी?
(b) इस प्रौद्योगिकी की प्रक्रिया का संक्षिप्त वर्णन करें।
(c) एक अन्य एआरटी का नाम बताएं और उसकी व्याख्या करें जिसमें निषेचन मादा के शरीर के अंदर होता है।
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(b) **Procedure of ICSI:** In this specialized procedure, a single healthy sperm is selected and directly injected into the cytoplasm of an ovum (collected from the wife/donor) in the laboratory. The resulting embryo is then transferred into the uterus of the female to achieve pregnancy. This bypasses the need for a high sperm count for natural fertilization.
(c) **Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT):** This is another ART where fertilization occurs in vivo (inside the body). In this method, an ovum collected from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further development. Sperm is also introduced so that fertilization can occur naturally within the fallopian tube.
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1. Category: Barrier Method
- Method: Condoms (for male or female).
- Mode of Action: They prevent the physical meeting of sperm and ovum by creating a barrier.
- Advantage: Protects against Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and is easily available.
- Disadvantage: May have issues with incorrect usage, leading to failure, or can tear.
2. Category: Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs)
- Method: Copper T (CuT).
- Mode of Action: The copper ions released suppress sperm motility and their fertilizing capacity. It also causes phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
- Advantage: Highly effective, long-lasting (3-5 years), and reversible once removed.
- Disadvantage: Needs to be inserted by a doctor or trained nurse; can cause increased menstrual bleeding or cramping initially.
(Other valid examples like Oral Contraceptive Pills could also be explained).
b) Under what medical conditions is this technique legally permitted and what is its primary purpose?
ख) किन चिकित्सीय स्थितियों के तहत इस तकनीक की कानूनी रूप से अनुमति है और इसका प्राथमिक उद्देश्य क्या है?
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Principle of Amniocentesis: A small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal cells, is collected from the uterus. These cells are cultured and their chromosomes are analyzed (karyotyping) to detect any genetic abnormalities.
b) This technique is legally permitted only to detect certain genetic disorders such as Down's syndrome, haemophilia, sickle-cell anemia, or other chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Its primary purpose is to diagnose serious congenital and genetic diseases, allowing for medical advice and preparation.
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(a) State the phenotype and genotype of the F1 generation.
(b) The F1 plants were self-pollinated to produce the F2 generation. Work out the cross to show the genotypes and phenotypes of the F2 generation.
(c) State the law that this cross explains.
(a) F1 पीढ़ी के लक्षणप्ररूप (फीनोटाइप) और जीनप्ररूप (जीनोटाइप) बताइए।
(b) F2 पीढ़ी उत्पन्न करने के लिए F1 पौधों में स्व-परागण कराया गया। F2 पीढ़ी के जीनप्ररूप और लक्षणप्ररूप को दर्शाने के लिए संकरण को हल कीजिए।
(c) उस नियम का उल्लेख कीजिए जिसकी यह संकरण व्याख्या करता है।
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Phenotype: All tall plants with violet flowers.
Genotype: All heterozygous for both traits (TtWw).
(b) F2 Generation Cross:
A dihybrid cross between TtWw x TtWw results in a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.
- 9 Tall, Violet
- 3 Tall, White
- 3 Dwarf, Violet
- 1 Dwarf, White
The genotypes would be in the ratio of 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (e.g., TTWW, TtWW, ttWW, TTWw, TtWw, ttWw, TTww, Ttww, ttww).
(c) Law of Independent Assortment. This law states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, the segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters.
(a) With the help of a cross, determine the probability of their children (sons and daughters) being colour-blind.
(b) Why is colour blindness more common in males than in females?
(c) Name another X-linked recessive disorder in humans.
(a) एक संकरण की सहायता से, उनके बच्चों (पुत्रों और पुत्रियों) के वर्णांध होने की प्रायिकता निर्धारित कीजिए।
(b) पुरुषों में वर्णांधता महिलाओं की तुलना में अधिक सामान्य क्यों है?
(c) मनुष्यों में किसी अन्य एक्स-सहलग्न अप्रभावी विकार का नाम बताइए।
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Man's genotype: XcY
Woman's genotype: XCXc
Cross:
XcY x XCXc
Progeny:
- Daughter (XCXc): Carrier, normal vision (25%)
- Daughter (XcXc): Colour-blind (25%)
- Son (XCY): Normal vision (25%)
- Son (XcY): Colour-blind (25%)
Probability: 50% of daughters will be colour-blind. 50% of sons will be colour-blind. Overall, 50% of children will be colour-blind.
(b) Colour blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. Males have only one X chromosome (XY). If they inherit one recessive allele (Xc) on their X chromosome from their mother, they will express the trait. Females have two X chromosomes (XX). They need to inherit the recessive allele from both parents (XcXc) to be colour-blind. Having one recessive allele (XCXc) makes them a carrier with normal vision.
(c) Haemophilia.
(b) A person is diagnosed with Klinefelter's syndrome. Describe the chromosomal abnormality in this person.
(c) List any three characteristic symptoms of this syndrome.
(b) एक व्यक्ति को क्लाइनफेल्टर सिंड्रोम का निदान किया गया है। इस व्यक्ति में गुणसूत्र संबंधी असामान्यता का वर्णन कीजिए।
(c) इस सिंड्रोम के कोई तीन विशिष्ट लक्षण सूचीबद्ध कीजिए।
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(b) Klinefelter's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the X-chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. This is a trisomy of the sex chromosomes.
(c) Characteristic symptoms of Klinefelter's syndrome include:
1. The individual is male but shows feminine development (gynaecomastia, i.e., development of breasts).
2. Overall masculine development is seen, but individuals are sterile.
3. They are often tall with long limbs and have poor beard growth.
a) What are the genotypes of the man, the woman, and the child?
b) What other blood groups can be expected in their future children? Work out the possibilities with the help of a cross.
c) Which phenomenon of inheritance is demonstrated here? Explain it.
क) पुरुष, महिला और बच्चे के जीनप्ररूप (जीनोटाइप) क्या हैं?
ख) उनकी भविष्य की संतानों में कौन से अन्य रक्त समूहों की अपेक्षा की जा सकती है? एक संकरण की सहायता से संभावनाओं का पता लगाइए।
ग) यहाँ वंशागति की कौन सी परिघटना प्रदर्शित होती है? इसकी व्याख्या कीजिए।
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Woman's genotype: Iᴮi
Child's genotype: ii
b) Other possible blood groups are A (Iᴬi), B (Iᴮi), and AB (IᴬIᴮ).
Cross:
Parents: Iᴬi (Man) × Iᴮi (Woman)
Gametes: (Iᴬ, i) and (Iᴮ, i)
Progeny: IᴬIᴮ (AB group), Iᴬi (A group), Iᴮi (B group), ii (O group). The probability for each blood group is 25%.
c) This demonstrates Co-dominance and Multiple Allelism.
Co-dominance: Both alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ express themselves completely when present together, resulting in the AB blood group. Neither allele is dominant or recessive to the other.
Multiple Allelism: The gene 'I' for blood group exists in more than two allelic forms: Iᴬ, Iᴮ, and i.
a) State the phenotype of the F1 generation.
b) What would be the phenotypic ratio observed in the F2 generation when the F1 progeny is self-pollinated?
c) State the law that is demonstrated by this cross.
d) Using a Punnett square, show the gametes and progeny of the F2 generation.
क) F1 पीढ़ी की लक्षणप्ररूपी (फीनोटाइप) बताइए।
ख) जब F1 संतति का स्व-परागण कराया जाता है तो F2 पीढ़ी में कौन-सा लक्षणप्ररूपी अनुपात देखा जाएगा?
ग) इस संकरण द्वारा प्रदर्शित होने वाले नियम का उल्लेख कीजिए।
घ) एक पनेट वर्ग का उपयोग करके F2 पीढ़ी के युग्मकों और संतति को दर्शाइए।
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b) The phenotypic ratio observed in the F2 generation will be 9 (Round, Yellow) : 3 (Round, Green) : 3 (Wrinkled, Yellow) : 1 (Wrinkled, Green).
c) This cross demonstrates Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment. It states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, the segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters.
d) The gametes from F1 (RrYy) would be RY, Ry, rY, and ry. The Punnett square for the F2 generation would be a 16-square grid showing the combination of these gametes, resulting in the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. (A correctly drawn Punnett square is expected).
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
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(b) CsCl density gradient centrifugation was used because it separates DNA molecules based on their densities. The heavy DNA with ¹⁵N settled lower down the tube than the light DNA with ¹⁴N. The hybrid DNA (¹⁵N-¹⁴N) settled at a level intermediate between the heavy and light DNA, which was crucial for their conclusion.
(a) Initiation (charging of tRNA and formation of initiation complex)
(b) Elongation (polypeptide chain formation)
(c) Termination
(a) समारंभन (tRNA का आवेशन और समारंभन सम्मिश्र का निर्माण)
(b) दीर्घीकरण (पॉलीपेप्टाइड श्रृंखला का निर्माण)
(c) समापन
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(b) Elongation: A second charged tRNA with an appropriate anticodon binds to the A-site of the ribosome. A peptide bond is formed between the amino acid on the initiator tRNA (at the P-site) and the amino acid on the tRNA at the A-site. The ribosome then translocates along the mRNA, moving the tRNA from the A-site to the P-site, and the uncharged tRNA from the P-site to the E-site, from where it exits. This cycle repeats.
(c) Termination: Elongation continues until a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA) on the mRNA reaches the A-site. Release factors bind to the stop codon, causing the hydrolysis of the bond between the polypeptide chain and the tRNA at the P-site. The completed polypeptide is released, and the ribosomal subunits dissociate from the mRNA.
(a) When lactose is absent in the culture medium.
(b) When lactose is present in the culture medium.
(a) जब संवर्धन माध्यम में लैक्टोज अनुपस्थित हो।
(b) जब संवर्धन माध्यम में लैक्टोज उपस्थित हो।
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(b) When lactose is present: Lactose (or its metabolite allolactose) acts as an inducer. It binds to the repressor protein, causing a conformational change that inactivates it. The inactivated repressor cannot bind to the operator region. This allows RNA polymerase to access the promoter and transcribe the structural genes z, y, and a. The transcription leads to the synthesis of enzymes (β-galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase) necessary for lactose metabolism.
(b) Explain the process of DNA replication in E. coli, highlighting the role of DNA polymerase and the reason for the discontinuous synthesis of one strand.
(b) E. coli में DNA प्रतिकृति की प्रक्रिया की व्याख्या कीजिए, जिसमें DNA पॉलिमरेज़ की भूमिका और एक रज्जुक के असंतत संश्लेषण के कारण पर प्रकाश डाला गया हो।
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Number of Adenine (A) = 520. Therefore, Number of Thymine (T) = 520.
Total number of A+T = 520 + 520 = 1040.
Total nucleotides = 2000.
Number of G+C = 2000 - 1040 = 960.
Since G=C, Number of Guanine (G) = 480 and Number of Cytosine (C) = 480.
Pyrimidine bases are Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T).
Total pyrimidines = C + T = 480 + 520 = 1000.
(b) DNA replication in E. coli is semi-conservative. The main enzyme is DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. It polymerises nucleotides in the 5'→3' direction. Since the two strands of the DNA helix are anti-parallel, one strand with polarity 3'→5' acts as a template for continuous synthesis (leading strand). The other strand with polarity 5'→3' acts as a template for discontinuous synthesis in the form of short fragments called Okazaki fragments (lagging strand). These fragments are later joined together by the enzyme DNA ligase.
(b) A segment of a template strand in a transcription unit is: 3'–ATGCATGCATGC–5'. Write the sequence of (i) its complementary coding strand and (ii) the mRNA transcribed from it.
(c) Explain the role of RNA polymerase in the process of transcription in bacteria.
(b) एक अनुलेखन इकाई में टेम्पलेट रज्जुक का एक खंड है: 3'–ATGCATGCATGC–5'। (i) इसके पूरक कूटलेखन रज्जुक और (ii) इससे अनुलेखित mRNA का अनुक्रम लिखिए।
(c) जीवाणु में अनुलेखन की प्रक्रिया में RNA पॉलिमरेज़ की भूमिका की व्याख्या कीजिए।
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Coding Strand: It has polarity 5'→3'. It does not code for anything. Its sequence is the same as that of the mRNA transcribed (except that T is present instead of U).
(b) Given template strand: 3'–ATGCATGCATGC–5'
(i) Complementary coding strand: 5'–TACGTACGTACG–3'
(ii) mRNA transcribed: 5'–UACGUACGUACG–3'
(c) In bacteria, a single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the transcription of all types of RNA. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and initiates transcription (initiation). It uses nucleoside triphosphates as a substrate and polymerises in a template-dependent fashion following the rule of complementarity. It facilitates the opening of the helix and continues the elongation of the RNA chain. When it reaches the terminator region, the nascent RNA falls off, as does the RNA polymerase, terminating the process.
Evolution
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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अभिसारी विकास का उदाहरण कशेरुकियों के अग्रपाद हैं, जैसे मानव भुजा, चमगादड़ का पंख और व्हेल का फ्लिपर, जिनकी उत्पत्ति समान है लेकिन कार्य भिन्न हैं।
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(a) The frequencies of the 'b' and 'B' alleles.
(b) The frequencies of the genotypes BB and Bb.
(c) The number of heterozygous individuals in the population.
(d) Name any two factors that can disrupt this equilibrium.
(क) 'b' और 'B' युग्मविकल्पियों की आवृत्तियाँ।
(ख) जीनप्ररूप BB और Bb की आवृत्तियाँ।
(ग) समष्टि में विषमयुग्मजी व्यक्तियों की संख्या।
(घ) ऐसे किन्हीं दो कारकों के नाम बताइए जो इस साम्यावस्था को बाधित कर सकते हैं।
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(b) Frequency of genotype BB (p²) = (0.4)² = 0.16. Frequency of genotype Bb (2pq) = 2 * 0.4 * 0.6 = 0.48.
(c) The number of heterozygous individuals (Bb) = Frequency of Bb × Total population = 0.48 × 1000 = 480 beetles.
(d) Two factors that can disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are: Gene flow (or gene migration) and Genetic drift. (Also acceptable: Mutation, Natural selection, Non-random mating).
(b) Describe three pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms that could prevent interbreeding if the two beetle populations were to meet again.
(b) तीन युग्मनज-पूर्व (pre-zygotic) पृथक्करण क्रियाविधियों का वर्णन करें जो इन दो भृंग समष्टियों के फिर से मिलने पर अंतःप्रजनन को रोक सकती हैं।
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(b) Three pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms could be:
1. **Ecological/Habitat Isolation:** The two populations may have adapted to different habitats (e.g., one on the riverbank, one in the forest) and thus do not meet to mate.
2. **Temporal Isolation:** The mating seasons of the two populations might have shifted to different times of the year.
3. **Behavioral/Mating Isolation:** The courtship rituals or mating signals (e.g., specific pheromones or dance patterns) may have diverged, so individuals of one population are no longer attracted to the other.
(a) What does this fossil distribution pattern suggest about the evolutionary relationship between X, Y, and Z?
(b) How does this evidence support the theory of evolution?
(c) Mention two other types of evidence for evolution, besides palaeontology.
(a) यह जीवाश्म वितरण पैटर्न X, Y, और Z के बीच विकासीय संबंध के बारे में क्या बताता है?
(b) यह साक्ष्य विकास के सिद्धांत का समर्थन कैसे करता है?
(c) पुराजीव विज्ञान (palaeontology) के अलावा, विकास के लिए दो अन्य प्रकार के साक्ष्यों का उल्लेख करें।
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(b) This evidence supports evolution by demonstrating that: (i) Life forms have changed over time (are not static). (ii) Different life forms appeared at different times in Earth's history. (iii) It shows transitional forms, providing a record of the sequence of evolutionary change from simpler to more complex organisms.
(c) Two other types of evidence for evolution are:
1. **Comparative Anatomy and Morphology:** Evidence from homologous and analogous structures, as well as vestigial organs.
2. **Biochemical Evidence:** Similarities in proteins, DNA sequences, and metabolic pathways among different species.
(b) How do these structures provide evidence for evolution?
(c) A bat's wing and a butterfly's wing are often cited as examples of a specific type of evolutionary evidence. Identify this type and explain the evolutionary phenomenon it represents.
(ख) ये संरचनाएँ विकास के लिए प्रमाण कैसे प्रदान करती हैं?
(ग) चमगादड़ के पंख और तितली के पंख को अक्सर एक विशिष्ट प्रकार के विकासवादी प्रमाण के उदाहरण के रूप में उद्धृत किया जाता है। इस प्रकार की पहचान करें और उस विकासवादी घटना की व्याख्या करें जिसका यह प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।
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(b) Homologous structures suggest a common ancestry and divergent evolution, where related species adapt to different needs. Analogous structures suggest convergent evolution, where unrelated species evolve similar traits independently to adapt to similar environments or ecological niches.
(c) The wings of a bat and a butterfly are analogous structures. This represents convergent evolution. It shows that different organisms, without a recent common ancestor, can independently evolve similar features as adaptations to a similar way of life (in this case, flying).
(a) What was the aim of the experiment?
(b) Mention the gaseous mixture and the conditions they created in the apparatus.
(c) What were the key observations or products formed?
(d) What significant conclusion was drawn from this experiment?
(क) प्रयोग का उद्देश्य क्या था?
(ख) उपकरण में बनाए गए गैसीय मिश्रण और दशाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
(ग) प्रमुख अवलोकन या निर्मित उत्पाद क्या थे?
(घ) इस प्रयोग से क्या महत्वपूर्ण निष्कर्ष निकाला गया?
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(b) Gaseous mixture: Methane (CH₄), Ammonia (NH₃), Hydrogen (H₂), and Water vapour (H₂O) in a closed flask. Conditions: High temperature (800°C) and continuous electric sparks to simulate lightning.
(c) After a week, they observed the formation of a collection of organic molecules in the condensed water, including amino acids like glycine, alanine, and aspartic acid.
(d) The significant conclusion was that organic molecules, the building blocks of life, could indeed form abiotically under the primitive Earth's conditions. This provided strong evidence for the theory of chemical evolution.
Human Health and Disease
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
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**Mechanism of Parturition:**
1. **Initiation:** Signals for parturition originate from the fully developed fetus and the placenta, which induce mild uterine contractions called the fetal ejection reflex.
2. **Hormonal Role:** This triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
3. **Positive Feedback Loop:** Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles, causing stronger contractions. This, in turn, stimulates further secretion of oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues, resulting in stronger and stronger contractions.
4. **Expulsion:** This leads to the expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal.
**Initiation of Lactation:**
During pregnancy, the breasts undergo differentiation. After delivery, the sudden drop in progesterone and estrogen levels allows the hormone prolactin (from the pituitary) to act on the mammary glands, stimulating milk production (lactogenesis). The initial milk produced, called colostrum, is rich in antibodies.
(a) Explain the major events that occur in the uterus and ovary during the follicular and luteal phases of the menstrual cycle.
(b) Correlate the uterine and ovarian events with the levels of pituitary (FSH, LH) and ovarian (estrogen, progesterone) hormones during these phases.
(a) आर्तव चक्र के पुटकीय (फॉलिक्यूलर) और पीतपिंडी (ल्यूटियल) प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय में होने वाली प्रमुख घटनाओं की व्याख्या करें।
(b) इन प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय की घटनाओं को पीयूष ग्रंथि (FSH, LH) और अंडाशयी (एस्ट्रोजन, प्रोजेस्टेरोन) हार्मोन के स्तरों के साथ सहसंबद्ध करें।
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**Luteal Phase:** In the ovary, the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum. In the uterus, the endometrium further thickens and its glands become secretory, preparing for implantation. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, causing the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation.
(b) **Follicular Phase:** Gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increase, stimulating follicular development and secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles. Estrogen causes the proliferation of the endometrium.
**Luteal Phase:** The rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) induces rupture of the Graafian follicle and ovulation. After ovulation, the corpus luteum is formed which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. In the absence of fertilization, the decline in progesterone levels causes menstruation.
(a) On which day of the cycle is ovulation most likely to occur?
(b) Describe the specific events that occur in the ovary and uterus during the follicular phase (proliferative phase).
(c) Explain the hormonal changes involving FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone that lead to and follow ovulation.
(a) चक्र के किस दिन अंडोत्सर्ग होने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है?
(b) पुटकीय प्रावस्था (प्रचुरोद्भवी प्रावस्था) के दौरान अंडाशय और गर्भाशय में होने वाली विशिष्ट घटनाओं का वर्णन करें।
(c) FSH, LH, एस्ट्रोजन और प्रोजेस्टेरोन से जुड़े हार्मोनल परिवर्तनों की व्याख्या करें जो अंडोत्सर्ग का कारण बनते हैं और उसके बाद होते हैं।
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(b) Events during the follicular phase:
In the Ovary: The primary follicles grow to become fully mature Graafian follicles. This is stimulated by FSH and LH.
In the Uterus: The endometrium regenerates through proliferation. This is stimulated by the increasing levels of ovarian hormones (estrogen).
(c) Hormonal Changes:
- Before Ovulation: FSH and LH levels gradually increase, stimulating follicular development and estrogen secretion. Estrogen levels rise, peaking just before ovulation. This high level of estrogen triggers a rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) which induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle, leading to ovulation.
- After Ovulation: The remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium.
(b) What is implantation? Explain how the blastocyst gets embedded into the uterine wall.
(c) Name the embryonic layers that are formed during gastrulation.
(b) अंतर्रोपण क्या है? व्याख्या करें कि ब्लास्टोसिस्ट गर्भाशय की दीवार में कैसे अंतःस्थापित होता है।
(c) गैस्ट्रुलेशन के दौरान बनने वाली भ्रूणीय परतों के नाम बताइए।
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1. Acrosomal reaction: The sperm's acrosome releases enzymes (like hyaluronidase) to penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida of the ovum.
2. Cortical reaction: Once a sperm fuses with the ovum's plasma membrane, it induces changes in the zona pellucida that block the entry of additional sperms (polyspermy block).
3. Completion of Meiosis II: The entry of sperm induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte, forming a second polar body and a haploid ovum (ootid).
4. Syngamy: The haploid nucleus of the sperm and that of the ovum fuse together to form a diploid zygote.
(b) Implantation is the process by which the blastocyst attaches to and embeds itself in the endometrium of the uterus. The trophoblast layer of the blastocyst gets attached to the endometrium. The uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst, resulting in it becoming fully embedded in the endometrium.
(c) The three embryonic layers (germ layers) formed during gastrulation are: Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and Endoderm.
(a) On which day of her cycle is she most likely to ovulate? Name the two pituitary hormones that are involved in ovulation.
(b) What happens to the Graafian follicle after ovulation? Describe the hormonal role of the structure formed.
(c) If fertilization does not occur, what changes will take place in the uterus and why?
(a) अपने चक्र के किस दिन उसके अंडोत्सर्ग करने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है? अंडोत्सर्ग में शामिल दो पीयूषिका हार्मोन के नाम बताइए।
(b) अंडोत्सर्ग के बाद ग्राफी पुटक (ग्राफियन फॉलिकल) का क्या होता है? बनी हुई संरचना की हार्मोनल भूमिका का वर्णन करें।
(c) यदि निषेचन नहीं होता है, तो गर्भाशय में क्या परिवर्तन होंगे और क्यों?
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(b) After ovulation, the ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into a yellow glandular structure called the Corpus Luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium, making it receptive to implantation of the fertilized ovum. (2 marks)
(c) If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates. This causes a fall in the level of progesterone, leading to the disintegration of the endometrium. This results in menstruation, marking the start of a new cycle. (1 mark)
Microbes in Human Welfare
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(a) Name the bacterium.
(b) Explain how this bacterium is formulated and used by the farmer to act as a biocontrol agent.
(c) Why doesn't the toxin from this bacterium kill the bacterium itself or other insects like bees?
(क) जीवाणु का नाम बताइए।
(ख) व्याख्या करें कि इस जीवाणु को कैसे तैयार किया जाता है और किसान द्वारा जैव नियंत्रण कारक के रूप में कैसे उपयोग किया जाता है।
(ग) इस जीवाणु से निकलने वाला विष स्वयं जीवाणु या मधुमक्खियों जैसे अन्य कीटों को क्यों नहीं मारता है?
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(b) Spores of *Bacillus thuringiensis* are available in sachets as a dry powder. These are mixed with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants like cotton. When the insect larvae (bollworms) ingest the plant parts, the toxin is released in their gut, killing them.
(c) The toxin exists as an inactive protoxin (crystal protein) in the bacterium. It gets activated only in the alkaline pH of an insect's gut, which solubilizes the crystals. This activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells, creating pores that cause cell swelling and lysis, leading to the death of the insect. Since the bacterium's internal environment and the gut of other non-target insects (like bees) are not alkaline, the protoxin remains inactive and harmless.
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1. Lack of methanogenic bacteria: The initial slurry might not have a sufficient population of methanogens. Adding a small amount of slurry from a previously working biogas plant can act as an inoculum.
2. Incorrect temperature/pH: The digester tank may not be at the optimal temperature (around 35-40°C) or pH for methanogens to function efficiently.
The three stages of biogas production are:
(i) Solubilisation/Hydrolysis: Complex organic polymers like cellulose, proteins, and fats are broken down into simpler soluble monomers by hydrolytic enzymes produced by fermentative bacteria.
(ii) Acidogenesis: The simple monomers are further converted by acidogenic bacteria into organic acids, primarily acetic acid.
(iii) Methanogenesis: This is the final stage where methanogenic bacteria act on the organic acids to produce a mixture of gases, primarily methane (CH₄), along with carbon dioxide (CO₂) and traces of H₂S. This stage is strictly anaerobic.
(a) Name the microbial sources for Cyclosporin A and Statins.
(b) Explain the mode of action of each of these bioactive molecules in the human body.
(c) Why is Cyclosporin A essential for the organ transplant patient?
(क) साइक्लोस्पोरिन ए और स्टैटिन के सूक्ष्मजैविक स्रोतों के नाम बताइए।
(ख) मानव शरीर में इन जैव-सक्रिय अणुओं में से प्रत्येक की क्रिया की विधि की व्याख्या करें।
(ग) अंग प्रत्यारोपण रोगी के लिए साइक्लोस्पोरिन ए क्यों आवश्यक है?
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Cyclosporin A: Fungus *Trichoderma polysporum*.
Statins: Yeast *Monascus purpureus*.
(b) Mode of Action:
Cyclosporin A: It acts as an immunosuppressive agent by inhibiting the activation of T-lymphocytes, which are responsible for cell-mediated immunity that causes graft rejection.
Statins: They act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol in the body. This lowers blood cholesterol levels.
(c) Cyclosporin A is essential because the body's immune system recognizes the transplanted organ as foreign and mounts an immune response (cell-mediated) to reject it. By suppressing the immune system, particularly T-cells, Cyclosporin A prevents this rejection, allowing the organ to function in the recipient's body.
(b) Explain the biochemical processes carried out by these microbes that lead to the formation of these products, highlighting the characteristic features of each (e.g., large holes in cheese, specific taste in yoghurt).
(b) इन सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा की जाने वाली उन जैव रासायनिक प्रक्रियाओं की व्याख्या करें जिनके कारण इन उत्पादों का निर्माण होता है, प्रत्येक की विशिष्ट विशेषताओं (जैसे, पनीर में बड़े छिद्र, दही में विशिष्ट स्वाद) पर प्रकाश डालते हुए।
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- **Swiss Cheese:** The bacterium *Propionibacterium shermanii*.
- **Yoghurt:** *Lactobacillus* species (e.g., *Lactobacillus bulgaricus*) and *Streptococcus thermophilus*.
(b)
- **Swiss Cheese Formation:** *Propionibacterium shermanii* is used for the ripening of Swiss cheese. It grows on the curd and carries out fermentation, producing a large amount of carbon dioxide (CO2). The CO2 gas gets trapped within the cheese matrix, leading to the formation of the characteristic large holes or 'eyes' in Swiss cheese.
- **Yoghurt Formation:** Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) like *Lactobacillus* are added to milk. They grow and ferment the lactose (milk sugar) into lactic acid. The production of lactic acid causes the coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins (casein), leading to the formation of a thick, semi-solid curd with a characteristic tangy flavour. This process converts milk into yoghurt.
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Roles of microbes:
1. **Organic Matter Consumption:** These microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of the effluent. BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.
2. **Formation of Activated Sludge:** Once the BOD is reduced, the effluent is passed into a settling tank where the bacterial 'flocs' are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum.
This stage is crucial because it removes about 90-95% of the organic pollutants, which are the main cause of water pollution. By drastically reducing the BOD, it prevents the depletion of dissolved oxygen in natural water bodies, thus protecting aquatic life.
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Its significance lies in providing controlled conditions like temperature, pH, aeration, and nutrient supply, which are crucial for obtaining large quantities of recombinant proteins from cell cultures. (2 marks)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(b) Why is it essential for a cloning vector to have a 'selectable marker'? Name one such marker.
(b) एक क्लोनिंग वाहक में 'वरणात्मक चिह्नक' का होना क्यों आवश्यक है? ऐसे ही एक चिह्नक का नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
Double digestion with both enzymes will cleave the plasmid at all three sites.
The fragments obtained will be:
1. Fragment between BamHI (1000 bp) and EcoRI (2000 bp) = 2000 - 1000 = 1000 bp.
2. Fragment between EcoRI (2000 bp) and EcoRI (3500 bp) = 3500 - 2000 = 1500 bp.
3. Fragment between EcoRI (3500 bp) and BamHI (1000 bp, crossing the origin) = (4000 - 3500) + 1000 = 500 + 1000 = 1500 bp.
So, three fragments will be produced with sizes 1000 bp, 1500 bp, and 1500 bp.
(b) A selectable marker is essential to help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. It helps to differentiate host cells which have taken up the vector from those which have not. Example: Ampicillin resistance gene (ampR) or tetracycline resistance gene (tetR) in pBR322.
(a) Name and describe the steps of the technique they would use to amplify the gene.
(b) Explain the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why it is preferred over other DNA polymerases.
(c) What are 'primers' and what is their function in this technique?
(a) उस तकनीक के चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग वह जीन को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करेगा।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पोलीमरेज़ की भूमिका स्पष्ट कीजिए और इसे अन्य डीएनए पोलीमरेज़ की तुलना में क्यों पसंद किया जाता है।
(c) 'प्राइमर' क्या हैं और इस तकनीक में उनका क्या कार्य है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to 94-96°C to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered to 50-65°C to allow the primers to bind to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised to 72°C, the optimal temperature for Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands, starting from the primers.
(b) Role of Taq polymerase: It is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes the new DNA strand using the original strand as a template and dNTPs. It is preferred because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, eliminating the need to add fresh polymerase in each cycle.
(c) Primers are short, chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA at the 3' end of the template strands. Their function is to provide a starting point (a free 3'-OH group) for the DNA polymerase to begin synthesis.
(a) Name and describe the three main steps of the technique they should use to amplify the DNA.
(b) What is the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why is it specifically used?
(c) List two other essential components required for this technique besides the DNA template and Taq polymerase.
(a) उस तकनीक के तीन मुख्य चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग उन्हें डीएनए को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करना चाहिए।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पॉलिमरेज़ की क्या भूमिका है और इसका विशेष रूप से उपयोग क्यों किया जाता है?
(c) डीएनए टेम्पलेट और टैक पॉलिमरेज़ के अलावा इस तकनीक के लिए आवश्यक दो अन्य आवश्यक घटकों को सूचीबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to a high temperature (around 94-96°C) to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered (around 50-65°C) to allow short, synthetic DNA primers to bind (anneal) to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised again (around 72°C), allowing Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands by adding nucleotides, starting from the primers.
(b) Role of Taq polymerase: Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA strands. It is used because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, which would denature most other polymerases. This stability eliminates the need to add fresh enzyme after each cycle.
(c) Other essential components: Two other essential components are primers (short synthetic oligonucleotides) and deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs - dATP, dGTP, dCTP, dTTP).
(a) Name the vessel they should use for large-scale production. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a simple stirred-tank version of this vessel.
(b) Explain the function of the agitator system, oxygen delivery system, and foam control system in this vessel.
(c) What is 'downstream processing'? Mention any two processes involved in it.
(a) बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए उन्हें जिस पात्र का उपयोग करना चाहिए, उसका नाम बताइए। इस पात्र के एक साधारण विलोडित-हौज संस्करण का एक सुनामांकित चित्र बनाइए।
(b) इस पात्र में प्रक्षोभक तंत्र, ऑक्सीजन वितरण तंत्र और फोम नियंत्रण तंत्र के कार्यों की व्याख्या कीजिए।
(c) 'अनुप्रवाह संसाधन' क्या है? इसमें शामिल किन्हीं दो प्रक्रियाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
A simple stirred-tank bioreactor diagram should be drawn, labelling the following: Agitator system, Acid/base for pH control, Steam for sterilization, Culture broth, Sterile air, Foam breaker, Motor, and Flat bladed impeller.
(b) Functions:
- Agitator system: Ensures uniform mixing of the culture medium and even distribution of nutrients and oxygen throughout the bioreactor.
- Oxygen delivery system: Supplies sterile air/oxygen to the culture, which is essential for the aerobic growth of the recombinant cells.
- Foam control system: Prevents foam formation, which can interfere with the process and lead to contamination.
(c) Downstream Processing: It is a series of processes that follow the biosynthetic stage (fermentation) to separate and purify the desired product from the culture medium. Two processes include: Separation (e.g., centrifugation or filtration) and Purification (e.g., chromatography).
(a) Name the equipment they would use for this large-scale production.
(b) Describe any four essential components or systems of this equipment that help in achieving the desired product yield. State the function of each.
(c) Why is continuous culture more productive than batch culture in this system?
(a) इस बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए वे किस उपकरण का उपयोग करेंगे?
(b) वांछित उत्पाद प्राप्त करने में सहायता करने वाले इस उपकरण के किन्हीं चार आवश्यक घटकों या प्रणालियों का वर्णन करें। प्रत्येक का कार्य बताइए।
(c) इस प्रणाली में बैच संवर्धन की तुलना में सतत संवर्धन अधिक उत्पादक क्यों है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
(b) Four essential components and their functions are:
1. Agitator System: Consists of blades or impellers for uniform mixing of the contents and ensuring that the microbial cells are evenly exposed to nutrients and oxygen.
2. Oxygen Delivery System: A sparger or tube that bubbles sterile air or oxygen through the culture medium to meet the aerobic requirements of the cells for growth and product formation.
3. Foam Control System: A sensor and addition port to add anti-foaming agents, as excessive foam can interfere with the process and contaminate the system.
4. Temperature Control System: A jacket or internal coils through which water circulates to maintain the optimal temperature for enzymatic activity and cell growth, removing excess heat generated during metabolism.
(Other valid points: pH control system, sampling ports)
(c) Continuous culture is more productive because it maintains the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase. This is achieved by continuously draining used medium and adding fresh medium, leading to a prolonged period of high growth rate and product formation, unlike batch culture where growth is limited by nutrient depletion and waste accumulation.
Biotechnology and its Applications
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Its significance lies in providing controlled conditions like temperature, pH, aeration, and nutrient supply, which are crucial for obtaining large quantities of recombinant proteins from cell cultures. (2 marks)
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View Model Solution & Step Marking ▾
Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(b) Why is it essential for a cloning vector to have a 'selectable marker'? Name one such marker.
(b) एक क्लोनिंग वाहक में 'वरणात्मक चिह्नक' का होना क्यों आवश्यक है? ऐसे ही एक चिह्नक का नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
Double digestion with both enzymes will cleave the plasmid at all three sites.
The fragments obtained will be:
1. Fragment between BamHI (1000 bp) and EcoRI (2000 bp) = 2000 - 1000 = 1000 bp.
2. Fragment between EcoRI (2000 bp) and EcoRI (3500 bp) = 3500 - 2000 = 1500 bp.
3. Fragment between EcoRI (3500 bp) and BamHI (1000 bp, crossing the origin) = (4000 - 3500) + 1000 = 500 + 1000 = 1500 bp.
So, three fragments will be produced with sizes 1000 bp, 1500 bp, and 1500 bp.
(b) A selectable marker is essential to help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. It helps to differentiate host cells which have taken up the vector from those which have not. Example: Ampicillin resistance gene (ampR) or tetracycline resistance gene (tetR) in pBR322.
(a) Name and describe the steps of the technique they would use to amplify the gene.
(b) Explain the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why it is preferred over other DNA polymerases.
(c) What are 'primers' and what is their function in this technique?
(a) उस तकनीक के चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग वह जीन को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करेगा।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पोलीमरेज़ की भूमिका स्पष्ट कीजिए और इसे अन्य डीएनए पोलीमरेज़ की तुलना में क्यों पसंद किया जाता है।
(c) 'प्राइमर' क्या हैं और इस तकनीक में उनका क्या कार्य है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to 94-96°C to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered to 50-65°C to allow the primers to bind to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised to 72°C, the optimal temperature for Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands, starting from the primers.
(b) Role of Taq polymerase: It is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes the new DNA strand using the original strand as a template and dNTPs. It is preferred because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, eliminating the need to add fresh polymerase in each cycle.
(c) Primers are short, chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA at the 3' end of the template strands. Their function is to provide a starting point (a free 3'-OH group) for the DNA polymerase to begin synthesis.
(a) Name and describe the three main steps of the technique they should use to amplify the DNA.
(b) What is the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why is it specifically used?
(c) List two other essential components required for this technique besides the DNA template and Taq polymerase.
(a) उस तकनीक के तीन मुख्य चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग उन्हें डीएनए को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करना चाहिए।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पॉलिमरेज़ की क्या भूमिका है और इसका विशेष रूप से उपयोग क्यों किया जाता है?
(c) डीएनए टेम्पलेट और टैक पॉलिमरेज़ के अलावा इस तकनीक के लिए आवश्यक दो अन्य आवश्यक घटकों को सूचीबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to a high temperature (around 94-96°C) to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered (around 50-65°C) to allow short, synthetic DNA primers to bind (anneal) to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised again (around 72°C), allowing Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands by adding nucleotides, starting from the primers.
(b) Role of Taq polymerase: Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA strands. It is used because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, which would denature most other polymerases. This stability eliminates the need to add fresh enzyme after each cycle.
(c) Other essential components: Two other essential components are primers (short synthetic oligonucleotides) and deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs - dATP, dGTP, dCTP, dTTP).
(a) Name the vessel they should use for large-scale production. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a simple stirred-tank version of this vessel.
(b) Explain the function of the agitator system, oxygen delivery system, and foam control system in this vessel.
(c) What is 'downstream processing'? Mention any two processes involved in it.
(a) बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए उन्हें जिस पात्र का उपयोग करना चाहिए, उसका नाम बताइए। इस पात्र के एक साधारण विलोडित-हौज संस्करण का एक सुनामांकित चित्र बनाइए।
(b) इस पात्र में प्रक्षोभक तंत्र, ऑक्सीजन वितरण तंत्र और फोम नियंत्रण तंत्र के कार्यों की व्याख्या कीजिए।
(c) 'अनुप्रवाह संसाधन' क्या है? इसमें शामिल किन्हीं दो प्रक्रियाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
A simple stirred-tank bioreactor diagram should be drawn, labelling the following: Agitator system, Acid/base for pH control, Steam for sterilization, Culture broth, Sterile air, Foam breaker, Motor, and Flat bladed impeller.
(b) Functions:
- Agitator system: Ensures uniform mixing of the culture medium and even distribution of nutrients and oxygen throughout the bioreactor.
- Oxygen delivery system: Supplies sterile air/oxygen to the culture, which is essential for the aerobic growth of the recombinant cells.
- Foam control system: Prevents foam formation, which can interfere with the process and lead to contamination.
(c) Downstream Processing: It is a series of processes that follow the biosynthetic stage (fermentation) to separate and purify the desired product from the culture medium. Two processes include: Separation (e.g., centrifugation or filtration) and Purification (e.g., chromatography).
(a) Name the equipment they would use for this large-scale production.
(b) Describe any four essential components or systems of this equipment that help in achieving the desired product yield. State the function of each.
(c) Why is continuous culture more productive than batch culture in this system?
(a) इस बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए वे किस उपकरण का उपयोग करेंगे?
(b) वांछित उत्पाद प्राप्त करने में सहायता करने वाले इस उपकरण के किन्हीं चार आवश्यक घटकों या प्रणालियों का वर्णन करें। प्रत्येक का कार्य बताइए।
(c) इस प्रणाली में बैच संवर्धन की तुलना में सतत संवर्धन अधिक उत्पादक क्यों है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution ▾
(b) Four essential components and their functions are:
1. Agitator System: Consists of blades or impellers for uniform mixing of the contents and ensuring that the microbial cells are evenly exposed to nutrients and oxygen.
2. Oxygen Delivery System: A sparger or tube that bubbles sterile air or oxygen through the culture medium to meet the aerobic requirements of the cells for growth and product formation.
3. Foam Control System: A sensor and addition port to add anti-foaming agents, as excessive foam can interfere with the process and contaminate the system.
4. Temperature Control System: A jacket or internal coils through which water circulates to maintain the optimal temperature for enzymatic activity and cell growth, removing excess heat generated during metabolism.
(Other valid points: pH control system, sampling ports)
(c) Continuous culture is more productive because it maintains the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase. This is achieved by continuously draining used medium and adding fresh medium, leading to a prolonged period of high growth rate and product formation, unlike batch culture where growth is limited by nutrient depletion and waste accumulation.
Organisms and Populations
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
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1. **For Banana:**
* **Method:** Propagation through Rhizome.
* **Propagule:** The vegetative propagule is the rhizome. Small sections of the underground stem (rhizome), each containing at least one bud ('eye'), are cut and planted.
* **Process:** These rhizome pieces, when planted in moist soil, develop roots and shoots from the buds, growing into new, genetically identical banana plants.
2. **For Ginger:**
* **Method:** Propagation through Rhizome.
* **Propagule:** The vegetative propagule is the rhizome.
* **Process:** Ginger also has an underground, modified stem called a rhizome. The rhizome has distinct nodes and internodes. Small pieces of the rhizome, each with a few buds, are planted. These buds sprout to form new plants.
**Advantages for the farmer:**
* **Genetic Uniformity:** All new plants are genetically identical to the parent, ensuring desirable traits like fruit quality and yield are maintained.
* **Faster Growth:** Plants grown from vegetative propagules mature and bear fruit much earlier than those grown from seeds.
* **Propagation of Seedless Varieties:** This is the only method to propagate plants like bananas that do not produce viable seeds.
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1. **Potato:** Eyes of the tuber. The 'eyes' are axillary buds that can sprout to form new plants.
2. **Ginger:** Rhizome. The rhizome is an underground modified stem with nodes and internodes. Buds at the nodes can give rise to new plants.
3. **Water Hyacinth:** Offset. The offset is a lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots, capable of forming a new plant.
Two major advantages for the farmer are:
* **Genetic Uniformity (Clones):** It is a method of producing genetically identical individuals (clones). This ensures that desirable traits like high yield, disease resistance, or specific fruit quality of the parent plant are preserved.
* **Faster Propagation:** Plants raised by vegetative propagation reach maturity and start bearing flowers and fruits much earlier than those produced from seeds. This leads to a quicker harvest.
(b) Explain why vegetative propagation is considered a type of asexual reproduction. List two advantages and one disadvantage of this method for farmers.
(b) कायिक प्रवर्धन को अलैंगिक जनन का एक प्रकार क्यों माना जाता है, व्याख्या कीजिए। किसानों के लिए इस विधि के दो लाभ और एक हानि सूचीबद्ध करें।
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For Banana: The suggested vegetative propagule is the Rhizome (or suckers arising from it). Justification: The underground stem (rhizome) of banana possesses nodes and buds which can give rise to new plants. This ensures rapid and uniform crop production.
For Ginger: The suggested vegetative propagule is the Rhizome. Justification: Ginger has a modified underground stem called a rhizome which stores food and has buds. These buds can sprout to form new plants, making it an effective method for propagation.
(b)
Vegetative propagation is considered a type of asexual reproduction because it involves the formation of new individuals from a single parent, without the formation and fusion of gametes. The offspring are genetically identical to the parent plant.
Advantages for farmers:
1. It is a faster, easier, and cheaper method of propagation for many plants.
2. It helps in preserving the parental characters (like superior fruit quality, disease resistance) for successive generations.
Disadvantages for farmers:
1. Since there is no genetic variation, the entire crop is susceptible to the same diseases and pests. A single disease can wipe out the whole population.
(b) Oviparous animals like reptiles and birds lay eggs in a safe place, whereas viviparous animals like mammals give birth to young ones. Analyse this difference and explain how it provides better embryonic care and protection in viviparous animals.
(b) सरीसृप और पक्षियों जैसे अंडप्रजक जंतु एक सुरक्षित स्थान पर अंडे देते हैं, जबकि स्तनधारियों जैसे सजीवप्रजक जंतु शिशुओं को जन्म देते हैं। इस अंतर का विश्लेषण करें और व्याख्या करें कि यह सजीवप्रजक जंतुओं में बेहतर भ्रूणीय देखभाल और सुरक्षा कैसे प्रदान करता है।
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1. Cell Division (Mitosis): The zygote divides repeatedly by mitosis to increase the number of cells in the developing embryo. This is also called cleavage.
2. Cell Differentiation: The cells formed through division undergo differentiation to form specialized tissues and organs, which ultimately organize to form a complete organism.
(b) Analysis of difference:
In oviparous animals, the development of the zygote takes place outside the female's body, within a calcareous shell. The embryo is vulnerable to environmental threats and predators.
In viviparous animals, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism.
Better embryonic care and protection: Viviparity provides better care and protection because the developing embryo remains safe inside the mother's body, receiving continuous nourishment and protection from predators and harsh environmental conditions. After a certain stage of growth, the young ones are delivered out of the mother's body. Because of this proper embryonic care and protection, the chances of survival of young ones are greater in viviparous organisms.
(b) Name the vegetative propagules in the above-mentioned plants.
(c) Why is vegetative propagation also considered a type of asexual reproduction?
(b) उपरोक्त उल्लिखित पौधों में कायिक प्रवर्धों के नाम बताइए।
(c) कायिक प्रवर्धन को अलैंगिक जनन का एक प्रकार क्यों माना जाता है?
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(b) The vegetative propagules are:
- Potato tuber: Eyes (axillary buds)
- Ginger: Rhizome
- Bryophyllum leaf: Leaf buds (adventitious buds on leaf margins)
- Water hyacinth: Offset
(c) Vegetative propagation is considered a type of asexual reproduction because it involves only a single parent, and the offspring produced are genetically identical to the parent (clones). There is no formation or fusion of gametes involved.
Ecosystem
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(b) Construct a pyramid of biomass for a large tree ecosystem. Is it upright or inverted? Justify your answer.
(c) How does the pyramid of biomass for an aquatic ecosystem (like a pond) differ from that of a terrestrial ecosystem?
(ख) एक बड़े वृक्ष के पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के लिए जीवभार का पिरामिड बनाइए। यह सीधा है या उलटा? अपने उत्तर की पुष्टि कीजिए।
(ग) एक जलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र (जैसे तालाब) के लिए जीवभार का पिरामिड एक स्थलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र से किस प्रकार भिन्न होता है?
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(b) The pyramid of biomass in a large tree ecosystem is inverted (spindle-shaped).
Justification: A single large tree (producer) has a very large biomass. It supports a large number of herbivorous birds (primary consumers), which have a smaller total biomass. These birds, in turn, support a very small number of parasites or predators (secondary consumers), which have an even smaller biomass. Thus, the producer biomass is large, consumer biomass is less, and top consumer biomass is least.
(c) In a terrestrial ecosystem (e.g., grassland), the pyramid of biomass is typically upright because the total biomass of producers is greater than that of primary consumers, which is greater than that of secondary consumers. However, in an aquatic ecosystem (e.g., a pond), the pyramid of biomass is often inverted. This is because the producers are phytoplanktons, which have a very short life span and a small standing crop biomass at any given time. They are consumed rapidly by zooplanktons (primary consumers), which have a larger biomass.
(a) Name the key steps involved in the process of decomposition.
(b) Explain how temperature and soil moisture can affect the rate of decomposition.
(c) How does the chemical composition of detritus, specifically the presence of lignin and chitin versus nitrogen and water-soluble substances, influence the decomposition rate?
(क) अपघटन की प्रक्रिया में शामिल प्रमुख चरणों के नाम बताइए।
(ख) तापमान और मृदा की नमी अपघटन की दर को कैसे प्रभावित कर सकती है? व्याख्या कीजिए।
(ग) अपरद की रासायनिक संरचना, विशेष रूप से लिग्निन और काइटिन बनाम नाइट्रोजन और जल-विलेय पदार्थों की उपस्थिति, अपघटन दर को कैसे प्रभावित करती है?
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(b) Temperature and soil moisture are crucial climatic factors that regulate decomposition. The rate of decomposition is higher in warm and moist environments. Low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition, resulting in the build-up of organic materials. For example, decomposition is faster in tropical rainforests compared to temperate or arctic regions.
(c) The rate of decomposition is largely controlled by the chemical composition of detritus. Decomposition is slower if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, as these are complex polymers that are difficult for microbes to break down. Conversely, decomposition is quicker if the detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars, as these provide an easily accessible source of energy and nutrients for the decomposers.
(b) Explain the changes that occur in the characteristics of an ecosystem during succession, specifically focusing on species diversity, biomass, and humus content.
(c) Why is secondary succession faster than primary succession? Give two reasons.
(ख) अनुक्रमण के दौरान एक पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र की विशेषताओं में होने वाले परिवर्तनों की व्याख्या कीजिए, विशेष रूप से प्रजातियों की विविधता, जीवभार और ह्यूमस की मात्रा पर ध्यान केंद्रित करते हुए।
(ग) द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण प्राथमिक अनुक्रमण की तुलना में तेज क्यों होता है? दो कारण दीजिए।
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Secondary Succession: It begins in an area that has lost all the living organisms that existed there, but where soil or sediment is present, e.g., abandoned farmland, burned or cut forests.
(b) During succession:
- Species diversity: Increases as succession proceeds. The number of species and organisms increases.
- Biomass: The total amount of living organic matter (biomass) increases.
- Humus content: Decomposers also increase, leading to an increase in the humus content of the soil.
(c) Secondary succession is faster than primary succession for two main reasons:
1. Presence of Soil: Secondary succession starts on well-developed soil or sediment. This soil already contains nutrients and organic matter, eliminating the long process of soil formation which is a necessary first step in primary succession.
2. Presence of Propagules: Some seeds, spores, roots, or other propagules of previous organisms may remain in the soil, allowing for quicker re-colonization compared to the arrival of pioneer species on a sterile surface.
(b) List any three limitations of ecological pyramids.
(b) पारिस्थितिक पिरामिड की कोई तीन सीमाएँ सूचीबद्ध कीजिए।
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Pyramid Structure:
Base: Phytoplankton (Producers) - Smallest biomass
Above Base: Zooplankton (Primary Consumers)
Above that: Small Fish (Secondary Consumers)
Top: Large Fish (Tertiary Consumers) - Largest biomass
(b) Three limitations of ecological pyramids are:
1. They do not account for the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels (e.g., omnivores).
2. They assume a simple food chain, which almost never exists in nature; they do not accommodate a food web.
3. Decomposers (saprophytes) are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.
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1. **Weathering of Rocks:** The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock, which contains phosphorus in the form of phosphates. Through weathering and erosion, these phosphates are dissolved in soil solution and absorbed by the roots of plants.
2. **Decomposition:** When organisms die, decomposers like bacteria and fungi break down the organic matter, returning phosphates to the soil (mineralization), making it available for producers again.
Two ways human activities disrupt the phosphorus cycle:
1. **Use of Fertilizers:** The extensive use of phosphate fertilizers in agriculture significantly alters the natural cycle. The excess phosphorus runs off from fields into water bodies, causing eutrophication (algal blooms) which depletes oxygen and harms aquatic life.
2. **Mining:** Humans mine phosphate rock to produce fertilizers. This depletes the natural geological reserves of phosphorus, which are non-renewable on a human timescale.
Biodiversity and Conservation
Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)
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Criteria: 1. High species endemism (at least 1500 endemic vascular plant species). 2. High degree of threat (lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation).
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Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)
(b) A Royal Bengal Tiger is to be conserved. As a biologist, which conservation strategy would you recommend and why? Justify your choice with two reasons.
(b) एक रॉयल बंगाल टाइगर का संरक्षण किया जाना है। एक जीवविज्ञानी के रूप में, आप कौन सी संरक्षण रणनीति की सिफारिश करेंगे और क्यों? दो कारणों के साथ अपनी पसंद का औचित्य सिद्ध करें।
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Ex-situ (off-site) conservation involves protecting species outside their natural habitats in special settings. This is used for rare or endangered species that cannot be safely protected in the wild. Example: Zoological parks, Botanical gardens, Cryopreservation.
(b) For the Royal Bengal Tiger, the in-situ conservation strategy is highly recommended.
Reasons:
1. Ecosystem Protection: Conserving the tiger in its natural habitat (like a Tiger Reserve) also ensures the protection of its entire ecosystem, including its prey base (deer, wild boar) and forest habitat. This maintains ecological balance.
2. Natural Behavior and Evolution: In-situ conservation allows tigers to live, hunt, and reproduce in their natural environment, preserving their natural behaviors and allowing them to continue adapting and evolving. This is not possible in captivity (ex-situ).
(a) Write the equation for the species-area relationship on a logarithmic scale.
(b) How would the slope of the line (regression coefficient 'Z') differ between Site A and Site B? Explain the ecological reason for this difference.
(c) What is the typical range of the 'Z' value for small areas, and what does a much steeper slope signify?
(क) लॉगरिथमिक पैमाने पर जाति-क्षेत्र संबंध का समीकरण लिखिए।
(ख) स्थल A और स्थल B के बीच रेखा का ढलान (समाश्रयण गुणांक 'Z') कैसे भिन्न होगा? इस अंतर का पारिस्थितिक कारण स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ग) छोटे क्षेत्रों के लिए 'Z' मान की सामान्य परास क्या है, और एक बहुत तीव्र ढलान क्या दर्शाता है?
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log S = log C + Z log A
Where S = Species richness, A = Area, Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient), and C = Y-intercept.
(b) The slope of the line ('Z') will be steeper for Site A (the island) compared to Site B (the continental mainland).
**Ecological Reason:** On islands (and other isolated habitats), species are more susceptible to extinction, and immigration from other areas is less frequent. This leads to a situation where an increase in area results in a more rapid accumulation of species compared to a continental area of the same size, where species are more widespread and can easily move between adjacent areas. Therefore, the species turnover rate is higher on islands, resulting in a steeper slope.
(c) The typical range for the 'Z' value for small or continental areas is 0.1 to 0.2. A much steeper slope (Z values in the range of 0.6 to 1.2) signifies that species richness increases very rapidly with an increase in area. This is characteristic of very large areas like entire continents or for specific taxonomic groups like frugivorous birds and mammals in tropical forests.
(b) Name any two biodiversity hotspots in India.
(c) List the three main criteria that must be met for a region to be declared a biodiversity hotspot.
(d) Why is the 'hotspot' concept a practical approach for conservation planning?
(ख) भारत में किन्हीं दो जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के नाम बताइए।
(ग) उन तीन मुख्य मानदंडों की सूची बनाइए जिन्हें किसी क्षेत्र को जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट घोषित करने के लिए पूरा किया जाना चाहिए।
(घ) संरक्षण योजना के लिए 'हॉटस्पॉट' की अवधारणा एक व्यावहारिक दृष्टिकोण क्यों है?
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(b) Two biodiversity hotspots in India are: The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, and the Indo-Burma region. (Himalaya is also a valid answer).
(c) The three criteria for a region to be a biodiversity hotspot are:
1. **High Species Richness:** It must contain a large number of different species.
2. **High Degree of Endemism:** It must have a significant number of endemic species (species that are found nowhere else).
3. **High Degree of Threat:** It must have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.
(d) The hotspot concept is a practical approach because it allows conservation efforts and resources to be focused on areas where they can have the greatest impact. By protecting these hotspots, a very large number of species can be protected in a cost-effective manner, especially those that are most vulnerable to extinction.
(b) Why is the ex-situ conservation approach considered a secondary option for conserving a highly endangered terrestrial animal species?
(ख) एक अत्यधिक संकटग्रस्त स्थलीय जंतु प्रजाति के संरक्षण के लिए बाह्य-स्थाने संरक्षण उपागम को एक द्वितीयक विकल्प क्यों माना जाता है?
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Examples: National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Biosphere Reserves, Sacred Groves.
**Ex-situ conservation:** This approach involves placing threatened animals and plants in special care units for their protection, away from their natural habitat. It is the conservation of biological diversity components outside their natural habitats.
Examples: Zoological parks, Botanical gardens, Cryopreservation (gene banks, seed banks).
(b) The ex-situ approach is a secondary option because:
1. It removes the species from its natural evolutionary pressures and ecological interactions.
2. It can be expensive and may not be feasible for all species.
3. The population size that can be maintained is limited due to space and resource constraints.
4. Reintroduction into the wild can be difficult and unsuccessful. Therefore, protecting the entire ecosystem (in-situ) is always the preferred and more holistic approach.
(b) State any three hypotheses proposed by ecologists to explain why the tropics show the greatest level of species richness.
(ख) पारिस्थितिकीविदों द्वारा यह समझाने के लिए प्रस्तावित कोई तीन परिकल्पनाएँ बताइए कि उष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में प्रजातियों की समृद्धि का स्तर सबसे अधिक क्यों होता है।
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(b) Three hypotheses to explain this pattern are:
1. **Speciation is a function of time:** Temperate regions were subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, while tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, thus allowing a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
2. **Tropical environments are less seasonal:** Tropical environments are more constant and predictable than temperate ones. This promotes niche specialization and leads to a greater species diversity.
3. **More solar energy is available in the tropics:** This contributes to higher productivity, which in turn might support a greater diversity of species indirectly.
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