Class 12 Biology Chapter-Wise Subjective Question Bank PDF — 15 Questions Per Chapter (Genetics & Reproduction) | SolvIQ PrepOne
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Class 12 Biology Chapter-Wise Subjective Question Bank PDF — 15 Questions Per Chapter (Genetics & Reproduction)

PrepOne Academic Team
September 18, 2026
40 min read
Class 12 Biology Chapter-Wise Subjective Question Bank PDF — 15 Questions Per Chapter (Genetics & Reproduction)

Summary: This master publication provides the complete Chapter-Wise Subjective Question Bank for Class 12 Biology (CBSE & Bihar Board). Featuring 15 subjective questions per chapter (10 Short Answer 2–3M + 5 Long Answer 5M) with official model answers, step marking rubrics, and detailed KaTeX proofs.

Chapter-Wise Distribution (195 Total Questions)

Scoring top marks in subjective theory requires mastering both short 2-mark conceptual reasoning and 5-mark long derivations. Each chapter below includes 10 Short Answer and 5 Long Answer questions with step rubrics.

13
Chapters Covered
10 SA
Per Chapter (2-3M)
5 LA
Per Chapter (5M)
100%
Model Solutions
1

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the significance of the tapetum in the development of pollen grains. What would be the consequence if the tapetum degenerated prematurely?
परागकणों के विकास में टैपेटम के महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए। यदि टैपेटम समय से पहले पतित हो जाए तो इसके क्या परिणाम होंगे?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains. It secretes enzymes and hormones essential for microspore development and also produces sporopollenin. Premature degeneration would lead to sterile or non-viable pollen grains due to lack of nutrition and sporopollenin deposition.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy, highlighting their genetic implications for the offspring.
जिटोनोगैमी और ज़ेनोगैमी के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए, जिसमें संतति के लिए उनके आनुवंशिक निहितार्थों पर प्रकाश डाला गया हो।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower on the same plant. It is genetically similar to autogamy as the pollen comes from the same plant. Xenogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a different plant. It results in genetic variation as it involves two genetically different parents.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe two adaptations in flowers that ensure cross-pollination. Explain how these adaptations prevent self-pollination.
पराग-परागण सुनिश्चित करने वाले फूलों में दो अनुकूलन का वर्णन कीजिए। समझाइए कि ये अनुकूलन स्व-परागण को कैसे रोकते हैं।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Dichogamy: Anthers and stigmas mature at different times, preventing self-pollination. For example, in protandry, anthers mature first. Herkogamy: A physical barrier exists between the anther and stigma, or their positions differ, making self-pollination difficult. For example, in some flowers, the stigma is placed much higher than the anthers.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the process of double fertilization in angiosperms. Why is it considered a unique event?
आवृतबीजी पौधों में द्विनिषेचन की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन कीजिए। इसे एक अद्वितीय घटना क्यों माना जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form a diploid zygote (syngamy), and the other male gamete fuses with the central cell (two polar nuclei) to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (triple fusion). It is unique because two fusion events occur simultaneously within the embryo sac, leading to the formation of both the embryo and the endosperm.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of the suspensor in embryo development in dicotyledonous plants. What would happen if the suspensor failed to develop properly?
द्विबीजपत्री पौधों में भ्रूण के विकास में सस्पेंसर की भूमिका की व्याख्या कीजिए। यदि सस्पेंसर ठीक से विकसित न हो पाए तो क्या होगा?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The suspensor pushes the developing embryo into the endosperm, ensuring its proper nutrition and anchorage. It also transfers nutrients from the endosperm to the embryo. If the suspensor fails to develop properly, the embryo may not receive adequate nutrition or may not be positioned correctly, leading to abnormal or arrested embryo development.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the significance of sporopollenin in the survival of pollen grains. What is its chemical nature?
परागकणों के जीवित रहने में स्पोरोपोलेनिन के महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए। इसकी रासायनिक प्रकृति क्या है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sporopollenin provides a highly resistant outer layer (exine) to pollen grains, protecting them from degradation by high temperatures, strong acids, alkalis, and enzymatic action. This ensures their survival during dispersal to the stigma. Chemically, it is one of the most resistant organic materials known, a biopolymer formed by oxidative polymerization of carotenoids and carotenoid esters.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy, highlighting their implications for genetic variation in offspring.
सजातपुष्पी परागण और परनिषेचन के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए, जिसमें संतति में आनुवंशिक भिन्नता के लिए उनके निहितार्थों पर प्रकाश डालिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower on the same plant. It is genetically similar to autogamy (self-pollination) as the pollen comes from the same plant, leading to less genetic variation. Xenogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of a flower on a different plant. It brings genetically different pollen to the stigma, resulting in greater genetic variation in the offspring.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the process of double fertilisation in angiosperms. What are its two main outcomes?
आवृतबीजी पौधों में दोहरा निषेचन की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन कीजिए। इसके दो मुख्य परिणाम क्या हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
In double fertilisation, one male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form a diploid zygote (syngamy), which develops into an embryo. The other male gamete fuses with the diploid central cell (polar nuclei) to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN), which develops into the endosperm. The two main outcomes are the formation of the zygote (leading to embryo) and the formation of the primary endosperm nucleus (leading to endosperm).
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain why some fruits are called 'false fruits' and give an example. How do they differ from 'true fruits'?
समझाइए कि कुछ फलों को 'असत्य फल' क्यों कहा जाता है और एक उदाहरण दीजिए। वे 'सत्य फलों' से किस प्रकार भिन्न होते हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
False fruits are those fruits in which other floral parts, apart from the ovary, contribute to fruit formation. For example, apple, strawberry, cashew. True fruits develop exclusively from the ovary after fertilisation. In false fruits, the thalamus or other floral parts become the main fleshy part, whereas in true fruits, only the ripened ovary forms the fruit.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy, highlighting the genetic implications of each type of pollination.
स्वपरागगन (गेइटोनोगैमी) और परपरागण (ज़ेनोगैमी) के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए, प्रत्येक प्रकार के परागण के आनुवंशिक निहितार्थों पर प्रकाश डालिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Geitonogamy: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower on the same plant. Genetically it is similar to autogamy. Xenogamy: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a flower on a different plant. Genetically, it results in genetic variation.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Trace the development of a mature embryo sac from a megaspore mother cell in a flowering plant.
(b) Why is this type of embryo sac development called monosporic?
(a) एक पुष्पी पौधे में गुरुबीजाणु मातृ कोशिका से एक परिपक्व भ्रूण कोष के विकास का अनुरेखण कीजिए।
(b) इस प्रकार के भ्रूण कोष विकास को एकबीजाणुज (मोनोस्पोरिक) क्यों कहा जाता है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Development of Embryo Sac:
1. The Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to form a linear tetrad of four haploid megaspores.
2. Three of the megaspores, usually at the micropylar end, degenerate.
3. The one functional megaspore at the chalazal end enlarges.
4. The nucleus of the functional megaspore undergoes three successive free nuclear mitotic divisions, resulting in eight nuclei.
5. These eight nuclei arrange themselves: three move to the micropylar end to form the egg apparatus (one egg cell and two synergids), three move to the chalazal end to form antipodal cells, and the remaining two nuclei (polar nuclei) are situated in the large central cell below the egg apparatus.
6. Cell walls are then laid down, resulting in a 7-celled, 8-nucleate mature embryo sac.

(b) Monosporic Development:
It is called monosporic because the embryo sac develops from a single functional megaspore out of the four megaspores formed from the megaspore mother cell.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
Differentiate between the development of endosperm and embryo in a dicotyledonous flowering plant after double fertilization. Describe the stages of embryo development up to the heart-shaped stage.
द्विबीजपत्री पुष्पी पौधे में दोहरे निषेचन के पश्चात् भ्रूणपोष और भ्रूण के विकास के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। हृदय-आकार अवस्था तक भ्रूण के विकास के चरणों का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
Difference between Endosperm and Embryo Development:
Endosperm Development: The Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) undergoes repeated mitotic divisions to form a triploid endosperm tissue. Initially, these divisions are free-nuclear, creating a liquid endosperm. Later, cell wall formation occurs, making it cellular. Its primary function is to provide nutrition to the developing embryo.
Embryo Development: The diploid zygote divides mitotically to form the embryo. The development is more organized, proceeding through specific stages (proembryo, globular, heart-shaped, and mature embryo). It develops into the future plant.

Stages of Embryo Development (Dicot):
1. The zygote divides asymmetrically into a larger suspensor cell and a smaller embryonal cell.
2. The embryonal cell divides to form a proembryo.
3. Further divisions lead to a globular-shaped embryo.
4. The globular embryo then develops into a heart-shaped embryo due to the growth of two cotyledons. The suspensor pushes the embryo deep into the endosperm.
This development is called embryogeny.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Trace the development of a mature embryo sac from a megaspore mother cell in a flowering plant. (b) Explain the role of the synergids and antipodal cells after fertilization.
(a) एक पुष्पी पादप में गुरुबीजाणु मातृ कोशिका से एक परिपक्व भ्रूण कोष के विकास का अनुरेखण कीजिए। (b) निषेचन के पश्चात् सहाय कोशिकाओं तथा प्रतिव्यासांत कोशिकाओं की भूमिका की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Development of Embryo Sac:
1. The Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) is a large diploid cell in the nucellus of the ovule.
2. It undergoes meiosis to form a linear tetrad of four haploid megaspores.
3. Out of these four, three megaspores (usually towards the micropylar end) degenerate.
4. The one functional megaspore (usually towards the chalazal end) enlarges and becomes the first cell of the female gametophyte.
5. Its nucleus undergoes three successive free nuclear mitotic divisions, resulting in 8 nuclei within the same cytoplasm.
6. Cell walls then form, organizing these nuclei into a 7-celled, 8-nucleate embryo sac. This includes: one egg cell and two synergids at the micropylar end (egg apparatus), three antipodal cells at the chalazal end, and one large central cell with two polar nuclei.

(b) Role after fertilization:
* **Synergids:** One synergid guides the pollen tube entry into the embryo sac and degenerates upon its arrival. The other synergid also degenerates shortly after fertilization.
* **Antipodal cells:** These cells provide nutrition to the developing embryo sac and typically degenerate before or soon after fertilization.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Explain the sequence of events that occur from the deposition of a compatible pollen grain on the stigma until it enters the ovule.
(b) What is pollen-pistil interaction and how is it mediated?
(a) वर्तिकाग्र पर एक संगत परागकण के जमा होने से लेकर उसके बीजांड में प्रवेश करने तक होने वाली घटनाओं के क्रम की व्याख्या कीजिए।
(b) परागकण-स्त्रीकेसर संकर्षण क्या है और यह कैसे मध्यस्थित होता है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Sequence of events:
1. Pollen germination: The compatible pollen grain absorbs moisture and nutrients from the stigmatic surface and germinates. The tube cell emerges through a germ pore to form a pollen tube.
2. Pollen tube growth: The pollen tube grows down through the tissues of the stigma and style, guided by chemical signals.
3. Entry into ovule: The pollen tube enters the ovule, usually through the micropyle (porogamy). It then passes through the nucellus and penetrates the embryo sac, typically entering one of the synergids.
4. Discharge of male gametes: The tip of the pollen tube ruptures, releasing the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.

(b) Pollen-Pistil Interaction:
It is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by promotion or inhibition of the pollen. This interaction is mediated by chemical components of the pollen interacting with those of the pistil. If the pollen is compatible (of the right type), the pistil accepts the pollen and promotes post-pollination events. If the pollen is incompatible (of the wrong type), the pistil rejects the pollen by preventing pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the style. This recognition ability is the result of a continuous dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Describe the process of double fertilization in angiosperms.
(b) Why is this process significant for the plant?
(c) Name the diploid and triploid structures formed as a result of this process.
(a) आवृतबीजी पौधों में दोहरे निषेचन की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन कीजिए।
(b) यह प्रक्रिया पौधे के लिए क्यों महत्वपूर्ण है?
(c) इस प्रक्रिया के परिणामस्वरूप बनने वाली द्विगुणित और त्रिगुणित संरचनाओं के नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Double Fertilization:
1. The pollen tube, carrying two male gametes, enters the ovule and reaches the embryo sac, usually through a synergid.
2. The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.
3. **Syngamy:** One of the male gametes fuses with the egg cell nucleus to form a diploid zygote (2n).
4. **Triple Fusion:** The other male gamete moves towards the central cell and fuses with the two polar nuclei (or the secondary nucleus) to form the triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) (3n).
Since two types of fusion, syngamy and triple fusion, occur in the embryo sac, the phenomenon is termed double fertilization.

(b) Significance:
* It leads to the formation of a zygote which develops into an embryo.
* It results in the formation of the Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN), which develops into the endosperm. The endosperm provides nourishment to the developing embryo, increasing the chances of seed viability and seedling survival.

(c) Structures formed:
* **Diploid (2n):** Zygote
* **Triploid (3n):** Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) which later forms the Endosperm.
2

Human Reproduction

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are two distinct processes of gamete formation. Explain two key differences between these processes regarding the number of gametes produced and the timing of initiation.
शुक्राणुजनन और अंडजनन युग्मक निर्माण की दो अलग-अलग प्रक्रियाएँ हैं। इन प्रक्रियाओं के बीच युग्मकों की संख्या और आरंभ होने के समय के संबंध में दो प्रमुख अंतरों की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Spermatogenesis produces four functional spermatozoa from one primary spermatocyte, while oogenesis produces only one functional ovum and two polar bodies from one primary oocyte. Spermatogenesis initiates at puberty in males and continues throughout life, whereas oogenesis initiates during fetal development in females and ceases around menopause.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the journey of a sperm from the seminiferous tubules until it exits the male reproductive system, listing the structures it passes through sequentially.
एक शुक्राणु की वृषण नलिकाओं से लेकर पुरुष प्रजनन प्रणाली से बाहर निकलने तक की यात्रा का वर्णन कीजिए, उन संरचनाओं को क्रमिक रूप से सूचीबद्ध करते हुए जिनसे यह गुजरता है।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules, then pass through the rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and finally the urethra, from where they are expelled.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between implantation and placentation in human reproduction. Explain the significance of each.
मानव प्रजनन में आरोपण और अपरा-निर्माण के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। प्रत्येक के महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Implantation is the process where the blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. Its significance is the establishment of pregnancy. Placentation is the formation of the placenta, which is a structural and functional unit between the developing embryo and the maternal body. Its significance is to facilitate nutrient supply, waste removal, and hormone production for fetal development.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of the corpus luteum in maintaining pregnancy. What happens if the corpus luteum degenerates prematurely?
गर्भावस्था को बनाए रखने में कॉर्पस ल्यूटियम की भूमिका समझाइए। यदि कॉर्पस ल्यूटियम समय से पहले पतित हो जाता है तो क्या होता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is essential for maintaining the uterine endometrium, making it suitable for implantation and further development of the embryo. If it degenerates prematurely, the endometrium disintegrates, leading to abortion or miscarriage.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are two distinct processes of gamete formation. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis based on: (a) site of occurrence, (b) number of gametes produced from one primary germ cell, and (c) continuity of gamete production.
शुक्राणुजनन और अंडजनन युग्मक निर्माण की दो अलग-अलग प्रक्रियाएँ हैं। शुक्राणुजनन और अंडजनन के बीच निम्नलिखित आधारों पर अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए: (क) होने का स्थान, (ख) एक प्राथमिक जनन कोशिका से उत्पन्न युग्मकों की संख्या, और (ग) युग्मक उत्पादन की निरंतरता।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
(a) Spermatogenesis occurs in testes, oogenesis occurs in ovaries. (b) Spermatogenesis produces four spermatozoa from one primary spermatocyte, oogenesis produces one ovum and two polar bodies from one primary oocyte. (c) Spermatogenesis is continuous from puberty, oogenesis is discontinuous (arrested at prophase I and metaphase II).
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the role of Sertoli cells and Leydig cells in human spermatogenesis.
मानव शुक्राणुजनन में सर्टोली कोशिकाओं और लेडिग कोशिकाओं की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sertoli cells provide nourishment to the developing spermatozoa and secrete factors that help in spermiogenesis. Leydig cells (interstitial cells) synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called androgens, which are crucial for spermatogenesis.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the hormonal regulation of the menstrual cycle, specifically mentioning the roles of FSH and LH during the follicular and ovulatory phases.
मासिक धर्म चक्र के हार्मोनल विनियमन की व्याख्या कीजिए, विशेष रूप से पुटकीय और अंडोत्सर्ग चरणों के दौरान एफएसएच और एलएच की भूमिकाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
During the follicular phase, FSH stimulates follicular development and estrogen secretion. Rising estrogen levels stimulate LH and FSH surge. The LH surge triggers ovulation (release of ovum) and also induces luteinization of the ruptured follicle to form the corpus luteum.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
A human embryo needs to implant successfully in the uterus for a successful pregnancy. Describe the process of implantation and state its significance.
एक सफल गर्भावस्था के लिए मानव भ्रूण को गर्भाशय में सफलतापूर्वक प्रत्यारोपित होने की आवश्यकता होती है। आरोपण की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन कीजिए और इसके महत्व को बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Implantation is the process where the blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. The trophoblast cells of the blastocyst adhere to the uterine wall and secrete enzymes to penetrate it. Significance: It establishes a physical and physiological connection between the mother and the developing embryo, allowing for nutrient exchange and waste removal.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Outline the major events that occur during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle in a human female.
एक मानव महिला में मासिक धर्म चक्र के पुटकीय चरण के दौरान होने वाली प्रमुख घटनाओं का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
During the follicular phase, the primary follicle grows and matures into a Graafian follicle under the influence of FSH. Simultaneously, the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation, stimulated by estrogens secreted by the growing follicles.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Trace the path of a sperm from the seminiferous tubules until it reaches the ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube for fertilization.
शुक्रजनक नलिकाओं से शुक्राणु के मार्ग का पता लगाएँ जब तक कि वह निषेचन के लिए डिंबवाहिनी के एम्पुलरी-इस्थमिक जंक्शन तक नहीं पहुँच जाता।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules, then move to the rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra. From the urethra, it enters the female reproductive tract, passing through the vagina, cervix, uterus, and finally reaching the ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A pregnant woman visits a doctor in her third trimester. She is concerned about the process of childbirth and lactation. Explain the complex neuro-endocrine mechanism involved in initiating and regulating parturition in her body. Also, describe how lactation is initiated post-delivery.
एक गर्भवती महिला अपनी तीसरी तिमाही में डॉक्टर के पास जाती है। वह प्रसव और स्तनपान की प्रक्रिया को लेकर चिंतित है। उसके शरीर में प्रसव (पारट्यूरिशन) को प्रारंभ करने और नियंत्रित करने में शामिल जटिल न्यूरो-एंडोक्राइन क्रियाविधि की व्याख्या करें। यह भी वर्णन करें कि प्रसव के बाद दुग्ध-स्रवण (लैक्टेशन) कैसे शुरू होता है।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
Parturition is induced by a complex neuro-endocrine mechanism involving cortisol, estrogens, and oxytocin.
**Mechanism of Parturition:**
1. **Initiation:** Signals for parturition originate from the fully developed fetus and the placenta, which induce mild uterine contractions called the fetal ejection reflex.
2. **Hormonal Role:** This triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
3. **Positive Feedback Loop:** Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles, causing stronger contractions. This, in turn, stimulates further secretion of oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues, resulting in stronger and stronger contractions.
4. **Expulsion:** This leads to the expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal.

**Initiation of Lactation:**
During pregnancy, the breasts undergo differentiation. After delivery, the sudden drop in progesterone and estrogen levels allows the hormone prolactin (from the pituitary) to act on the mammary glands, stimulating milk production (lactogenesis). The initial milk produced, called colostrum, is rich in antibodies.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A woman's menstrual cycle lasts for 28 days.
(a) Explain the major events that occur in the uterus and ovary during the follicular and luteal phases of the menstrual cycle.
(b) Correlate the uterine and ovarian events with the levels of pituitary (FSH, LH) and ovarian (estrogen, progesterone) hormones during these phases.
एक महिला का आर्तव चक्र 28 दिनों का होता है।
(a) आर्तव चक्र के पुटकीय (फॉलिक्यूलर) और पीतपिंडी (ल्यूटियल) प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय में होने वाली प्रमुख घटनाओं की व्याख्या करें।
(b) इन प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय की घटनाओं को पीयूष ग्रंथि (FSH, LH) और अंडाशयी (एस्ट्रोजन, प्रोजेस्टेरोन) हार्मोन के स्तरों के साथ सहसंबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) **Follicular Phase:** In the ovary, the primary follicles grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle. In the uterus, the endometrium regenerates through proliferation.
**Luteal Phase:** In the ovary, the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum. In the uterus, the endometrium further thickens and its glands become secretory, preparing for implantation. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, causing the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation.

(b) **Follicular Phase:** Gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increase, stimulating follicular development and secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles. Estrogen causes the proliferation of the endometrium.
**Luteal Phase:** The rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) induces rupture of the Graafian follicle and ovulation. After ovulation, the corpus luteum is formed which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. In the absence of fertilization, the decline in progesterone levels causes menstruation.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A woman is experiencing a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.
(a) On which day of the cycle is ovulation most likely to occur?
(b) Describe the specific events that occur in the ovary and uterus during the follicular phase (proliferative phase).
(c) Explain the hormonal changes involving FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone that lead to and follow ovulation.
एक महिला 28-दिवसीय नियमित आर्तव चक्र का अनुभव कर रही है।
(a) चक्र के किस दिन अंडोत्सर्ग होने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है?
(b) पुटकीय प्रावस्था (प्रचुरोद्भवी प्रावस्था) के दौरान अंडाशय और गर्भाशय में होने वाली विशिष्ट घटनाओं का वर्णन करें।
(c) FSH, LH, एस्ट्रोजन और प्रोजेस्टेरोन से जुड़े हार्मोनल परिवर्तनों की व्याख्या करें जो अंडोत्सर्ग का कारण बनते हैं और उसके बाद होते हैं।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Ovulation is most likely to occur around the 14th day of a 28-day cycle.

(b) Events during the follicular phase:
In the Ovary: The primary follicles grow to become fully mature Graafian follicles. This is stimulated by FSH and LH.
In the Uterus: The endometrium regenerates through proliferation. This is stimulated by the increasing levels of ovarian hormones (estrogen).

(c) Hormonal Changes:
- Before Ovulation: FSH and LH levels gradually increase, stimulating follicular development and estrogen secretion. Estrogen levels rise, peaking just before ovulation. This high level of estrogen triggers a rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) which induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle, leading to ovulation.
- After Ovulation: The remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Describe the sequence of events from the entry of sperm into the ovum until the formation of the zygote in a human female.
(b) What is implantation? Explain how the blastocyst gets embedded into the uterine wall.
(c) Name the embryonic layers that are formed during gastrulation.
(a) मानव मादा में शुक्राणु के अंडाणु में प्रवेश से लेकर युग्मनज के निर्माण तक की घटनाओं के क्रम का वर्णन करें।
(b) अंतर्रोपण क्या है? व्याख्या करें कि ब्लास्टोसिस्ट गर्भाशय की दीवार में कैसे अंतःस्थापित होता है।
(c) गैस्ट्रुलेशन के दौरान बनने वाली भ्रूणीय परतों के नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Sequence of events during fertilization:
1. Acrosomal reaction: The sperm's acrosome releases enzymes (like hyaluronidase) to penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida of the ovum.
2. Cortical reaction: Once a sperm fuses with the ovum's plasma membrane, it induces changes in the zona pellucida that block the entry of additional sperms (polyspermy block).
3. Completion of Meiosis II: The entry of sperm induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte, forming a second polar body and a haploid ovum (ootid).
4. Syngamy: The haploid nucleus of the sperm and that of the ovum fuse together to form a diploid zygote.

(b) Implantation is the process by which the blastocyst attaches to and embeds itself in the endometrium of the uterus. The trophoblast layer of the blastocyst gets attached to the endometrium. The uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst, resulting in it becoming fully embedded in the endometrium.

(c) The three embryonic layers (germ layers) formed during gastrulation are: Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and Endoderm.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A woman experiences a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.
(a) On which day of her cycle is she most likely to ovulate? Name the two pituitary hormones that are involved in ovulation.
(b) What happens to the Graafian follicle after ovulation? Describe the hormonal role of the structure formed.
(c) If fertilization does not occur, what changes will take place in the uterus and why?
एक महिला 28-दिवसीय नियमित मासिक धर्म चक्र का अनुभव करती है।
(a) अपने चक्र के किस दिन उसके अंडोत्सर्ग करने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है? अंडोत्सर्ग में शामिल दो पीयूषिका हार्मोन के नाम बताइए।
(b) अंडोत्सर्ग के बाद ग्राफी पुटक (ग्राफियन फॉलिकल) का क्या होता है? बनी हुई संरचना की हार्मोनल भूमिका का वर्णन करें।
(c) यदि निषेचन नहीं होता है, तो गर्भाशय में क्या परिवर्तन होंगे और क्यों?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Ovulation is most likely to occur around the 14th day of a 28-day cycle. The two pituitary hormones involved are Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH). A surge in LH level (LH surge) is the primary trigger for ovulation. (2 marks)
(b) After ovulation, the ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into a yellow glandular structure called the Corpus Luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium, making it receptive to implantation of the fertilized ovum. (2 marks)
(c) If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates. This causes a fall in the level of progesterone, leading to the disintegration of the endometrium. This results in menstruation, marking the start of a new cycle. (1 mark)
3

Reproductive Health

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Short Answer
Write short notes on any two of the following:
(a) Intra-uterine devices
(b) Structure of testis
(c) Incomplete dominance.
निम्नलिखित में से किन्हीं दो पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखें :
(a) अंतःगर्भाशयी युक्ति
(b) वृषण की संरचना
(c) अपूर्ण प्रभाविता
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
(a) Intra-uterine devices (IUDs): These are contraceptive devices placed inside the uterus to prevent pregnancy. Examples include Copper-T, Cu7, and loop devices. Copper-releasing IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms and suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity. They are effective, reversible, and commonly used.

(b) Structure of testis: Testes are paired male gonads located in the scrotum. Each testis is covered by a tough connective tissue layer called tunica albuginea. Internally, it is divided into lobules containing seminiferous tubules where spermatogenesis occurs. The interstitial spaces contain Leydig cells that secrete testosterone.

(c) Incomplete dominance: In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other, so the heterozygote shows an intermediate phenotype. Example: In Mirabilis jalapa, red flower RRRR crossed with white flower rrrr gives pink flowers RrRr in the F1F_1 generation. In F2F_2, the phenotypic ratio is 1:2:11:2:1.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Highlight the importance of sex education in schools. How can it contribute to a reproductively healthy society?
विद्यालयों में यौन शिक्षा के महत्व पर प्रकाश डालिए। यह एक प्रजनन रूप से स्वस्थ समाज में कैसे योगदान दे सकती है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sex education helps adolescents understand reproductive organs, safe and hygienic sexual practices, STIs, and contraception. It promotes responsible sexual behavior, reduces unplanned pregnancies, and prevents the spread of STIs, leading to a reproductively healthy society.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the medical procedure of 'Amniocentesis'. Why is it legally banned for sex determination in India?
'एमनियोसेंटेसिस' की चिकित्सीय प्रक्रिया को समझाइए। भारत में लिंग निर्धारण के लिए इसे कानूनी रूप से क्यों प्रतिबंधित किया गया है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination and disorder detection test based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo. (1.5 marks) It is legally banned in India for sex determination to prevent female foeticide, which is a significant social problem leading to an imbalanced sex ratio. (1.5 marks)
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF)? Briefly describe the steps involved in IVF and Embryo Transfer (ET) technique.
इन विट्रो फर्टिलाइजेशन (IVF) क्या है? IVF और भ्रूण स्थानांतरण (ET) तकनीक में शामिल चरणों का संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) is a technique in which fertilisation of the ovum by sperm is carried out outside the body, in a 'test-tube' like environment. (1 mark) Steps: Ova are surgically removed from the female and fertilised with sperm outside the body. The zygote or early embryos (up to 8 blastomeres) are then transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT), while embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT). (2 marks)
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is Amniocentesis? Mention its primary purpose and one major disadvantage associated with its misuse.
उल्ववेधन (एम्नियोसेंटेसिस) क्या है? इसका प्राथमिक उद्देश्य और इसके दुरुपयोग से जुड़ा एक प्रमुख नुकसान बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination and disorder diagnostic test based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo. Its primary purpose is to detect genetic abnormalities/disorders in the foetus. A major disadvantage of its misuse is the increased incidence of female foeticide, leading to an unbalanced sex ratio.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP). What is the safe period for MTP and why is it considered safer during this period?
चिकित्सीय गर्भ समापन (एमटीपी) की व्याख्या करें। एमटीपी के लिए सुरक्षित अवधि क्या है और इस अवधि के दौरान इसे अधिक सुरक्षित क्यों माना जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is the intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term. The safe period for MTP is during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks of pregnancy). It is considered safer during this period because the foetus is relatively small, risks of complications are minimal, and the procedure is less invasive. Second-trimester MTPs are riskier.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain any three methods of contraception that involve hormonal action to prevent conception.
गर्भधारण को रोकने के लिए हार्मोनल क्रिया से संबंधित किन्हीं तीन गर्भनिरोधक विधियों की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Oral pills (e.g., combined pills, progestogen-only pills) inhibit ovulation and alter cervical mucus. Injections/Implants (e.g., Depo-Provera, Norplant) slowly release hormones (progestogen or progestogen-estrogen combination) to inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucus for longer durations. Emergency contraceptives (high dose progestogen or progestogen-estrogen combination) prevent implantation if taken within 72 hours of coitus.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain any three methods of contraception that involve barrier principles.
गर्भनिरोध के किन्हीं तीन तरीकों की व्याख्या करें जिनमें अवरोध सिद्धांत शामिल हैं।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
1. Condoms: Barrier made of thin rubber/latex covering penis or vagina/cervix. Prevents sperm from entering female reproductive tract. 2. Diaphragms/Cervical Caps/Vaults: Rubber barriers inserted into female reproductive tract to cover cervix. Used with spermicidal creams. 3. Intrauterine Devices (IUDs): Devices inserted into uterus. Some release hormones or copper ions, others are non-medicated. Prevent implantation. (Accept any three relevant barrier methods with brief explanation).
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Distinguish between Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) and contraception. Under what conditions is MTP considered safe?
गर्भधारण का चिकित्सकीय समापन (MTP) और गर्भनिरोध के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। किन परिस्थितियों में MTP को सुरक्षित माना जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
MTP is the intentional termination of pregnancy before full term, while contraception prevents conception. MTP is considered relatively safe during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks) of pregnancy, as risks increase significantly thereafter.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What are Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)? Name two bacterial and two viral STIs. Mention one preventive measure against STIs.
यौन संचारित संक्रमण (STIs) क्या हैं? दो जीवाणुजनित और दो विषाणुजनित यौन संचारित संक्रमणों के नाम बताइए। यौन संचारित संक्रमणों के विरुद्ध एक निवारक उपाय का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
STIs are infections or diseases that are transmitted from an infected person to a healthy person through sexual contact. (1 mark) Bacterial STIs: Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Chlamydia. Viral STIs: Genital Herpes, HIV/AIDS, Genital Warts, Hepatitis B. (Any two bacterial and two viral, 1 mark) Preventive measure: Avoid multiple partners, use condoms during coitus, avoid sharing needles. (Any one, 1 mark)

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A newly married, healthy couple wants to delay their first child for at least two years to focus on their careers. They want a reliable, reversible method with minimal side effects. As a health counsellor, suggest and explain two different categories of contraceptive methods that would be suitable for them. Justify your suggestions, highlighting the mechanism of action for each.
एक नवविवाहित, स्वस्थ जोड़ा अपने करियर पर ध्यान केंद्रित करने के लिए अपने पहले बच्चे के जन्म में कम से कम दो साल की देरी करना चाहता है। वे न्यूनतम दुष्प्रभावों वाली एक विश्वसनीय, प्रतिवर्ती (reversible) विधि चाहते हैं। एक स्वास्थ्य परामर्शदाता के रूप में, उनके लिए उपयुक्त गर्भनिरोधक विधियों की दो अलग-अलग श्रेणियों का सुझाव दें और उनकी व्याख्या करें। प्रत्येक की क्रियाविधि पर प्रकाश डालते हुए अपने सुझावों का औचित्य सिद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
As a health counsellor, I would suggest the following two categories of contraceptive methods for the couple:

1. **Barrier Methods (e.g., Condoms):**
* **Justification:** These are easily available, reversible, and offer the dual protection of preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). They have no hormonal side effects.
* **Mechanism of Action:** They act as a physical barrier, preventing the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract, thus blocking the meeting of sperm and ovum.

2. **Hormonal Contraceptives (e.g., Oral Contraceptive Pills):**
* **Justification:** These are highly effective and reversible. Once the couple decides to have a child, they can simply stop taking the pills. Modern low-dose pills have minimal side effects for most healthy women.
* **Mechanism of Action:** These pills contain hormones (progestogen or a combination of progestogen-estrogen) that inhibit ovulation (release of the egg) and also alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent the entry of sperm.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A patient is diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection that primarily damages the liver and can be prevented by a vaccine. Identify the disease and its causative agent.
(b) Explain the general mode of transmission for most STIs.
(c) List any three preventive measures, other than vaccines, that a person can adopt to protect themselves from STIs.
(a) एक रोगी में एक ऐसे यौन संचारित संक्रमण का निदान किया गया है जो मुख्य रूप से यकृत (liver) को नुकसान पहुँचाता है और जिसे टीके द्वारा रोका जा सकता है। इस रोग और इसके कारक जीव की पहचान करें।
(b) अधिकांश एसटीआई (STIs) के संचरण की सामान्य विधि की व्याख्या करें।
(c) टीकों के अलावा कोई तीन निवारक उपाय सूचीबद्ध करें, जिन्हें कोई व्यक्ति एसटीआई से खुद को बचाने के लिए अपना सकता है।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a)
* **Disease:** Hepatitis-B
* **Causative Agent:** Hepatitis-B Virus (HBV)

(b) **Mode of Transmission:** Most STIs are transmitted through sexual contact with an infected person. Other modes include sharing of injection needles, surgical instruments with infected persons, transfusion of blood from an infected person, or from an infected mother to the foetus.

(c) **Three Preventive Measures:**
1. Always use condoms during coitus.
2. Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
3. In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with an infection.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A couple has been unable to conceive a child naturally. Medical investigation reveals that the male partner has a very low sperm count, while the female partner is reproductively normal.
(a) Which Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) would be most appropriate for this couple?
(b) Briefly describe the procedure for this technology.
(c) Name and explain one other ART where the fertilization occurs inside the female's body.
एक दंपति स्वाभाविक रूप से गर्भधारण करने में असमर्थ रहा है। चिकित्सकीय जांच से पता चलता है कि पुरुष साथी में शुक्राणुओं की संख्या बहुत कम है, जबकि महिला साथी प्रजनन की दृष्टि से सामान्य है।
(a) इस दंपति के लिए कौन सी सहायक जनन प्रौद्योगिकी (ART) सबसे उपयुक्त होगी?
(b) इस प्रौद्योगिकी की प्रक्रिया का संक्षिप्त वर्णन करें।
(c) एक अन्य एआरटी का नाम बताएं और उसकी व्याख्या करें जिसमें निषेचन मादा के शरीर के अंदर होता है।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) **Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)** would be the most appropriate technology for this couple.

(b) **Procedure of ICSI:** In this specialized procedure, a single healthy sperm is selected and directly injected into the cytoplasm of an ovum (collected from the wife/donor) in the laboratory. The resulting embryo is then transferred into the uterus of the female to achieve pregnancy. This bypasses the need for a high sperm count for natural fertilization.

(c) **Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT):** This is another ART where fertilization occurs in vivo (inside the body). In this method, an ovum collected from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further development. Sperm is also introduced so that fertilization can occur naturally within the fallopian tube.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A newly married couple is planning to delay their first child for at least two years and wants to use a reliable but reversible contraceptive method. As a biology student, advise them on two different categories of contraceptive methods that would be suitable for them. For each category, name one specific method, explain its mode of action, and list one advantage and one disadvantage.
एक नवविवाहित जोड़ा अपने पहले बच्चे के जन्म में कम से कम दो साल की देरी करने की योजना बना रहा है और एक विश्वसनीय लेकिन उत्क्रमणीय गर्भनिरोधक विधि का उपयोग करना चाहता है। एक जीव विज्ञान के छात्र के रूप में, उन्हें गर्भनिरोधक विधियों की दो अलग-अलग श्रेणियों पर सलाह दें जो उनके लिए उपयुक्त होंगी। प्रत्येक श्रेणी के लिए, एक विशिष्ट विधि का नाम बताएँ, उसकी क्रियाविधि की व्याख्या करें, और एक लाभ व एक हानि सूचीबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
Suitable contraceptive methods for the couple would be Barrier Methods and Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs) as they are effective and reversible.

1. Category: Barrier Method
- Method: Condoms (for male or female).
- Mode of Action: They prevent the physical meeting of sperm and ovum by creating a barrier.
- Advantage: Protects against Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and is easily available.
- Disadvantage: May have issues with incorrect usage, leading to failure, or can tear.

2. Category: Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs)
- Method: Copper T (CuT).
- Mode of Action: The copper ions released suppress sperm motility and their fertilizing capacity. It also causes phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
- Advantage: Highly effective, long-lasting (3-5 years), and reversible once removed.
- Disadvantage: Needs to be inserted by a doctor or trained nurse; can cause increased menstrual bleeding or cramping initially.

(Other valid examples like Oral Contraceptive Pills could also be explained).
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
a) A pregnant woman in a rural area is advised by some to undergo a pre-natal diagnostic technique to determine the sex of her fetus. Why is this practice banned in India? Explain the principle of the technique they are likely referring to.
b) Under what medical conditions is this technique legally permitted and what is its primary purpose?
क) एक ग्रामीण क्षेत्र में एक गर्भवती महिला को उसके भ्रूण का लिंग निर्धारण करने के लिए जन्म-पूर्व निदान तकनीक कराने की सलाह दी जाती है। भारत में यह प्रथा प्रतिबंधित क्यों है? उस तकनीक के सिद्धांत की व्याख्या करें जिसका वे संभवतः उल्लेख कर रहे हैं।
ख) किन चिकित्सीय स्थितियों के तहत इस तकनीक की कानूनी रूप से अनुमति है और इसका प्राथमिक उद्देश्य क्या है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
a) The practice of determining the sex of the fetus is banned in India under the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act to prevent female foeticide, which has led to a skewed sex ratio in many parts of the country. The technique they are referring to is Amniocentesis.
Principle of Amniocentesis: A small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal cells, is collected from the uterus. These cells are cultured and their chromosomes are analyzed (karyotyping) to detect any genetic abnormalities.

b) This technique is legally permitted only to detect certain genetic disorders such as Down's syndrome, haemophilia, sickle-cell anemia, or other chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Its primary purpose is to diagnose serious congenital and genetic diseases, allowing for medical advice and preparation.
4

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the Law of Dominance with an example. How does it differ from incomplete dominance?
प्रभाविता के नियम को एक उदाहरण सहित समझाइए। यह अपूर्ण प्रभाविता से किस प्रकार भिन्न है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The Law of Dominance states that in a heterozygous condition, one allele (dominant) expresses itself phenotypically, masking the effect of the other allele (recessive). Example: In pea plants, tallness (T) is dominant over dwarfness (t). A Tt plant will be tall. In incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant, resulting in an intermediate phenotype (e.g., pink flowers from red and white parents).
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between gene mutation and chromosomal aberration with respect to their nature and impact on the organism.
जीन उत्परिवर्तन और गुणसूत्रीय विपथन के बीच उनकी प्रकृति और जीव पर प्रभाव के संबंध में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Gene mutation involves a change in the nucleotide sequence of a single gene, often leading to altered protein function (e.g., sickle cell anemia). Chromosomal aberration involves changes in the number or structure of entire chromosomes, leading to significant genetic disorders (e.g., Down's syndrome). Gene mutations are smaller scale, while chromosomal aberrations are larger scale changes.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the phenomenon of pleiotropy with a suitable example. Why is it considered an exception to Mendel's principles?
उपयुक्त उदाहरण सहित प्लियोट्रोपी की परिघटना का वर्णन कीजिए। इसे मेंडल के सिद्धांतों का अपवाद क्यों माना जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Pleiotropy is the phenomenon where a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions. Example: Phenylketonuria, where a single gene mutation affects intellectual development, hair pigmentation, and skin pigmentation. It's an exception because Mendel's principles primarily describe genes controlling single traits, whereas pleiotropy shows one gene influencing several traits.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
In humans, colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder. A colourblind man marries a woman who is a carrier for colour blindness. What are the possible genotypes and phenotypes of their children?
मनुष्यों में, रंगहीनता एक लिंग-सहलग्न अप्रभावी विकार है। एक रंगहीन पुरुष एक ऐसी महिला से विवाह करता है जो रंगहीनता की वाहक है। उनके बच्चों के संभावित जीनोटाइप और फीनोटाइप क्या होंगे?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Let X^C be the allele for normal vision and X^c be the allele for colour blindness.Man: X^cY (colourblind)Woman: X^CX^c (carrier)Possible children: Daughters: X^CX^c (carrier), X^cX^c (colourblind). Sons: X^CY (normal vision), X^cY (colourblind).Phenotypes: 25% carrier daughters, 25% colourblind daughters, 25% normal vision sons, 25% colourblind sons.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
A geneticist found that a particular gene in fruit flies has 5 different alleles in the population. How many different genotypes are possible for this gene in the population? Justify your answer.
एक आनुवंशिकीविद् ने पाया कि फल मक्खियों में एक विशेष जीन के जनसंख्या में 5 अलग-अलग एलील हैं। इस जीन के लिए जनसंख्या में कितने विभिन्न जीनोटाइप संभव हैं? अपने उत्तर का औचित्य सिद्ध कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
If there are 'n' alleles for a gene, the number of possible genotypes can be calculated using the formula n(n+1)/2. Here, n=5. So, the number of genotypes = 5(5+1)/2 = 5*6/2 = 15. The possible genotypes include homozygous combinations (A1A1, A2A2, etc.) and heterozygous combinations (A1A2, A1A3, etc.).
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of pleiotropy with a suitable example.
प्लीओट्रोपी की अवधारणा को एक उपयुक्त उदाहरण के साथ समझाइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Pleiotropy is when a single gene can affect multiple phenotypic traits. For example, in phenylketonuria, a single gene mutation affects intellectual disability, reduced hair and skin pigmentation.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
In Drosophila, the gene for white eyes (w) is X-linked recessive to red eyes (W). A white-eyed female is crossed with a red-eyed male. Predict the phenotype of the F1 generation.
ड्रोसोफिला में, सफेद आँखें (w) लाल आँखों (W) के प्रति X-सहलग्न अप्रभावी हैं। एक सफेद आँखों वाली मादा का संकरण लाल आँखों वाले नर के साथ किया जाता है। F1 पीढ़ी के फीनोटाइप की भविष्यवाणी कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
All F1 females will have red eyes (heterozygous). All F1 males will have white eyes.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
A cross between a red flower (RR) and a white flower (rr) in Mirabilis jalapa results in pink flowers (Rr). If a pink flower is self-pollinated, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring? Explain the phenomenon.
मिराबिलिस जलापा में लाल फूल (RR) और सफेद फूल (rr) के बीच एक क्रॉस के परिणामस्वरूप गुलाबी फूल (Rr) प्राप्त होते हैं। यदि एक गुलाबी फूल में स्व-परागण किया जाता है, तो संतति का फीनोटाइपिक अनुपात क्या होगा? इस घटना की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Phenotypic ratio: 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White. (1.5 marks) This phenomenon is incomplete dominance, where the dominant allele (R) does not completely mask the expression of the recessive allele (r), leading to an intermediate phenotype (pink) in the heterozygote. (1.5 marks)
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain why Mendel's law of independent assortment is not universally applicable to all gene combinations. Provide an example to support your explanation.
समझाइए कि मेंडल का स्वतंत्र अपव्यूहन का नियम सभी जीन संयोजनों पर सार्वभौमिक रूप से लागू क्यों नहीं होता है। अपने स्पष्टीकरण का समर्थन करने के लिए एक उदाहरण प्रस्तुत कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Mendel's law of independent assortment states that alleles of different genes assort independently of each other during gamete formation. This law is not universally applicable to genes located on the same chromosome (linked genes) because they tend to be inherited together. (1.5 marks) For example, in Drosophila, genes for body color and wing size located on the same chromosome show linkage and do not assort independently, leading to deviations from the expected Mendelian ratio. (1.5 marks)
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Distinguish between multiple allelism and pleiotropy with suitable examples.
उपयुक्त उदाहरणों सहित बहुविकल्पता और बहुप्रभाविता के बीच अंतर कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Multiple allelism refers to the presence of more than two alleles for a particular gene in a population. Example: ABO blood group system in humans, where gene I has three alleles (IA, IB, i). (1.5 marks) Pleiotropy is the phenomenon where a single gene can affect multiple phenotypic traits. Example: Phenylketonuria, where a single gene mutation affects mental retardation, reduced hair and skin pigmentation. (1.5 marks)

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A homozygous tall pea plant (TT) bearing violet flowers (WW) was crossed with a homozygous dwarf pea plant (tt) bearing white flowers (ww).
(a) State the phenotype and genotype of the F1 generation.
(b) The F1 plants were self-pollinated to produce the F2 generation. Work out the cross to show the genotypes and phenotypes of the F2 generation.
(c) State the law that this cross explains.
एक समयुग्मजी लंबे मटर के पौधे (TT) जिसमें बैंगनी फूल (WW) थे, का संकरण एक समयुग्मजी बौने मटर के पौधे (tt) जिसमें सफेद फूल (ww) थे, के साथ कराया गया।
(a) F1 पीढ़ी के लक्षणप्ररूप (फीनोटाइप) और जीनप्ररूप (जीनोटाइप) बताइए।
(b) F2 पीढ़ी उत्पन्न करने के लिए F1 पौधों में स्व-परागण कराया गया। F2 पीढ़ी के जीनप्ररूप और लक्षणप्ररूप को दर्शाने के लिए संकरण को हल कीजिए।
(c) उस नियम का उल्लेख कीजिए जिसकी यह संकरण व्याख्या करता है।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) F1 Generation:
Phenotype: All tall plants with violet flowers.
Genotype: All heterozygous for both traits (TtWw).

(b) F2 Generation Cross:
A dihybrid cross between TtWw x TtWw results in a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1.
- 9 Tall, Violet
- 3 Tall, White
- 3 Dwarf, Violet
- 1 Dwarf, White
The genotypes would be in the ratio of 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (e.g., TTWW, TtWW, ttWW, TTWw, TtWw, ttWw, TTww, Ttww, ttww).

(c) Law of Independent Assortment. This law states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, the segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A colour-blind man marries a woman who is a carrier for colour blindness.
(a) With the help of a cross, determine the probability of their children (sons and daughters) being colour-blind.
(b) Why is colour blindness more common in males than in females?
(c) Name another X-linked recessive disorder in humans.
एक वर्णांध पुरुष एक ऐसी महिला से विवाह करता है जो वर्णांधता की वाहक है।
(a) एक संकरण की सहायता से, उनके बच्चों (पुत्रों और पुत्रियों) के वर्णांध होने की प्रायिकता निर्धारित कीजिए।
(b) पुरुषों में वर्णांधता महिलाओं की तुलना में अधिक सामान्य क्यों है?
(c) मनुष्यों में किसी अन्य एक्स-सहलग्न अप्रभावी विकार का नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Let C be the allele for normal vision and c be the allele for colour blindness.
Man's genotype: XcY
Woman's genotype: XCXc
Cross:
XcY x XCXc
Progeny:
- Daughter (XCXc): Carrier, normal vision (25%)
- Daughter (XcXc): Colour-blind (25%)
- Son (XCY): Normal vision (25%)
- Son (XcY): Colour-blind (25%)
Probability: 50% of daughters will be colour-blind. 50% of sons will be colour-blind. Overall, 50% of children will be colour-blind.

(b) Colour blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. Males have only one X chromosome (XY). If they inherit one recessive allele (Xc) on their X chromosome from their mother, they will express the trait. Females have two X chromosomes (XX). They need to inherit the recessive allele from both parents (XcXc) to be colour-blind. Having one recessive allele (XCXc) makes them a carrier with normal vision.

(c) Haemophilia.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) What is aneuploidy? Give an example of a human disorder caused by it.
(b) A person is diagnosed with Klinefelter's syndrome. Describe the chromosomal abnormality in this person.
(c) List any three characteristic symptoms of this syndrome.
(a) असुगुणिता (एन्यूप्लॉइडी) क्या है? इसके कारण होने वाले एक मानव विकार का उदाहरण दीजिए।
(b) एक व्यक्ति को क्लाइनफेल्टर सिंड्रोम का निदान किया गया है। इस व्यक्ति में गुणसूत्र संबंधी असामान्यता का वर्णन कीजिए।
(c) इस सिंड्रोम के कोई तीन विशिष्ट लक्षण सूचीबद्ध कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Aneuploidy is the phenomenon of gain or loss of one or more chromosomes, which results from the failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division. Example: Down's syndrome (Trisomy of chromosome 21) or Turner's syndrome (Monosomy of X chromosome).

(b) Klinefelter's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the X-chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. This is a trisomy of the sex chromosomes.

(c) Characteristic symptoms of Klinefelter's syndrome include:
1. The individual is male but shows feminine development (gynaecomastia, i.e., development of breasts).
2. Overall masculine development is seen, but individuals are sterile.
3. They are often tall with long limbs and have poor beard growth.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group B. Their first child has blood group O.
a) What are the genotypes of the man, the woman, and the child?
b) What other blood groups can be expected in their future children? Work out the possibilities with the help of a cross.
c) Which phenomenon of inheritance is demonstrated here? Explain it.
एक 'A' रक्त समूह वाले पुरुष का विवाह 'B' रक्त समूह वाली महिला से होता है। उनकी पहली संतान का रक्त समूह 'O' है।
क) पुरुष, महिला और बच्चे के जीनप्ररूप (जीनोटाइप) क्या हैं?
ख) उनकी भविष्य की संतानों में कौन से अन्य रक्त समूहों की अपेक्षा की जा सकती है? एक संकरण की सहायता से संभावनाओं का पता लगाइए।
ग) यहाँ वंशागति की कौन सी परिघटना प्रदर्शित होती है? इसकी व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
a) Man's genotype: Iᴬi
Woman's genotype: Iᴮi
Child's genotype: ii
b) Other possible blood groups are A (Iᴬi), B (Iᴮi), and AB (IᴬIᴮ).
Cross:
Parents: Iᴬi (Man) × Iᴮi (Woman)
Gametes: (Iᴬ, i) and (Iᴮ, i)
Progeny: IᴬIᴮ (AB group), Iᴬi (A group), Iᴮi (B group), ii (O group). The probability for each blood group is 25%.
c) This demonstrates Co-dominance and Multiple Allelism.
Co-dominance: Both alleles Iᴬ and Iᴮ express themselves completely when present together, resulting in the AB blood group. Neither allele is dominant or recessive to the other.
Multiple Allelism: The gene 'I' for blood group exists in more than two allelic forms: Iᴬ, Iᴮ, and i.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A pea plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) is crossed with a pea plant having wrinkled green seeds (rryy).
a) State the phenotype of the F1 generation.
b) What would be the phenotypic ratio observed in the F2 generation when the F1 progeny is self-pollinated?
c) State the law that is demonstrated by this cross.
d) Using a Punnett square, show the gametes and progeny of the F2 generation.
एक गोल पीले बीज वाले मटर के पौधे (RRYY) का संकरण एक झुर्रीदार हरे बीज वाले मटर के पौधे (rryy) से कराया जाता है।
क) F1 पीढ़ी की लक्षणप्ररूपी (फीनोटाइप) बताइए।
ख) जब F1 संतति का स्व-परागण कराया जाता है तो F2 पीढ़ी में कौन-सा लक्षणप्ररूपी अनुपात देखा जाएगा?
ग) इस संकरण द्वारा प्रदर्शित होने वाले नियम का उल्लेख कीजिए।
घ) एक पनेट वर्ग का उपयोग करके F2 पीढ़ी के युग्मकों और संतति को दर्शाइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
a) The phenotype of the F1 generation will be Round and Yellow seeds, as these are the dominant traits. The genotype will be RrYy.
b) The phenotypic ratio observed in the F2 generation will be 9 (Round, Yellow) : 3 (Round, Green) : 3 (Wrinkled, Yellow) : 1 (Wrinkled, Green).
c) This cross demonstrates Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment. It states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, the segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters.
d) The gametes from F1 (RrYy) would be RY, Ry, rY, and ry. The Punnett square for the F2 generation would be a 16-square grid showing the combination of these gametes, resulting in the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. (A correctly drawn Punnett square is expected).
5

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain how Griffith's transforming principle experiment demonstrated that genetic material could be transferred from one bacterium to another, even though he couldn't identify the biochemical nature of the genetic material.
ग्रिफ़िथ के रूपांतरण सिद्धांत प्रयोग ने कैसे प्रदर्शित किया कि आनुवंशिक सामग्री एक जीवाणु से दूसरे में स्थानांतरित की जा सकती है, भले ही वह आनुवंशिक सामग्री की जैव रासायनिक प्रकृति की पहचान नहीं कर पाया हो?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Griffith observed that heat-killed virulent S-strain bacteria, when mixed with live non-virulent R-strain bacteria, caused disease and death in mice. Live S-strain bacteria were recovered from the dead mice. This showed that some 'transforming principle' from the heat-killed S-strain had transformed the R-strain into virulent S-strain.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between the structural features of DNA and RNA. List any three key differences that highlight their distinct roles in genetic information flow.
डीएनए और आरएनए की संरचनात्मक विशेषताओं के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। आनुवंशिक सूचना प्रवाह में उनकी विशिष्ट भूमिकाओं को उजागर करने वाले किन्हीं तीन प्रमुख अंतरों को सूचीबद्ध करें।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
1. Sugar: DNA has deoxyribose, RNA has ribose. 2. Nitrogenous Base: DNA has Thymine, RNA has Uracil. 3. Strandedness: DNA is typically double-stranded, RNA is typically single-stranded.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the main steps involved in the process of transcription in prokaryotes. What is the role of RNA polymerase in this process?
प्रोकैरियोट्स में अनुलेखन की प्रक्रिया में शामिल मुख्य चरणों का वर्णन कीजिए। इस प्रक्रिया में आरएनए पॉलीमरेज़ की क्या भूमिका है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Transcription in prokaryotes involves Initiation (RNA polymerase binds to promoter), Elongation (RNA polymerase unwinds DNA and synthesizes RNA in 5' to 3' direction), and Termination (RNA polymerase detaches at terminator sequence). RNA polymerase is the key enzyme that catalyzes the polymerization of ribonucleotides, using a DNA template.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of 'semiconservative DNA replication' as proposed by Watson and Crick. How did Meselson and Stahl experimentally prove this model?
वाटसन और क्रिक द्वारा प्रस्तावित 'अर्धसंरक्षी डीएनए प्रतिकृति' की अवधारणा को समझाइए। मेसेल्सन और स्टाल ने इस मॉडल को प्रायोगिक रूप से कैसे सिद्ध किया?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Semiconservative replication states that each new DNA molecule consists of one original strand and one newly synthesized strand. Meselson and Stahl used heavy nitrogen (15N) to label DNA and then transferred bacteria to a medium with light nitrogen (14N). After one generation, all DNA was hybrid (15N/14N), confirming semiconservative replication.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between the template strand and the coding strand of a DNA molecule during transcription. How does their role differ in mRNA synthesis?
प्रतिलेखन के दौरान डीएनए अणु के टेम्पलेट स्ट्रैंड और कोडिंग स्ट्रैंड के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। mRNA संश्लेषण में उनकी भूमिका कैसे भिन्न होती है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The template strand (antisense strand) serves as the template for mRNA synthesis, with its sequence being complementary to the mRNA. The coding strand (sense strand) has a sequence identical to the mRNA (except T in DNA is U in mRNA) and does not directly participate in transcription.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between the template strand and the coding strand during transcription. What is the role of each in the synthesis of mRNA?
प्रतिलेखन के दौरान टेम्पलेट स्ट्रैंड और कोडिंग स्ट्रैंड के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। mRNA के संश्लेषण में प्रत्येक की क्या भूमिका है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The template strand (antisense strand) is the DNA strand that serves as a template for mRNA synthesis, with its sequence being complementary to the mRNA. The coding strand (sense strand) is the other DNA strand, whose sequence is identical to the mRNA sequence (except for T in DNA being U in mRNA). The template strand is directly transcribed by RNA polymerase to produce mRNA, while the coding strand's sequence dictates the genetic information that will be carried by the mRNA.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the process of DNA replication, highlighting the roles of DNA polymerase and DNA ligase. Why is DNA replication considered semi-conservative?
डीएनए प्रतिकृति की प्रक्रिया की व्याख्या कीजिए, जिसमें डीएनए पॉलीमरेज़ और डीएनए लाइगेज़ की भूमिकाओं पर प्रकाश डालिए। डीएनए प्रतिकृति को अर्ध-संरक्षी क्यों माना जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
DNA replication involves unwinding of the double helix, followed by synthesis of new complementary strands using existing strands as templates. DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the growing DNA strand, while DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand. It is semi-conservative because each new DNA molecule consists of one original (parental) strand and one newly synthesized strand.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the silent features of the Human Genome Project (HGP). How has HGP contributed to the field of bioinformatics?
मानव जीनोम परियोजना (HGP) की मुख्य विशेषताओं का वर्णन कीजिए। HGP ने जैव सूचना विज्ञान के क्षेत्र में कैसे योगदान दिया है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The HGP was a mega project to sequence the entire human genome. Its silent features include identifying all human genes (20,000-25,000), determining the sequence of 3 billion base pairs, storing this information in databases, improving tools for data analysis, and addressing ethical, legal, and social issues (ELSI). HGP significantly contributed to bioinformatics by generating vast amounts of sequence data, necessitating the development of new computational tools and databases for storage, retrieval, and analysis of biological information.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of 'lac operon' in E. coli. How does the presence of lactose affect the expression of structural genes in this operon?
ई. कोलाई में 'लैक ओपेरॉन' की अवधारणा की व्याख्या कीजिए। लैक्टोज की उपस्थिति इस ओपेरॉन में संरचनात्मक जीनों की अभिव्यक्ति को कैसे प्रभावित करती है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The lac operon is an inducible operon in E. coli that controls the metabolism of lactose. It consists of a promoter, operator, and structural genes (z, y, a). In the absence of lactose, a repressor protein binds to the operator, preventing transcription. When lactose is present, it acts as an inducer, binding to the repressor protein and altering its conformation. This prevents the repressor from binding to the operator, allowing RNA polymerase to access the promoter and transcribe the structural genes, leading to the synthesis of enzymes for lactose metabolism.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the significance of Chargaff's rules in understanding the structure of DNA. How did these rules contribute to the development of the double helix model?
डीएनए की संरचना को समझने में चारगाफ के नियमों के महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए। इन नियमों ने दोहरी हेलिक्स मॉडल के विकास में कैसे योगदान दिया?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Chargaff's rules state that in DNA, the amount of adenine (A) is always equal to the amount of thymine (T), and the amount of guanine (G) is always equal to the amount of cytosine (C). This implied a complementary base pairing (A with T, G with C) which was crucial for Watson and Crick to propose the double helical structure where purines pair with pyrimidines, maintaining a uniform diameter.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Explain the experiment performed by Meselson and Stahl to prove that DNA replication is semi-conservative. (b) Why did they use Cesium Chloride (CsCl) density gradient centrifugation in their experiment?
(a) मेसेल्सन और स्टाल द्वारा यह सिद्ध करने के लिए किए गए प्रयोग की व्याख्या कीजिए कि डीएनए प्रतिकृति अर्ध-संरक्षी होती है। (b) उन्होंने अपने प्रयोग में सीज़ियम क्लोराइड (CsCl) घनत्व प्रवणता अपकेंद्रण का उपयोग क्यों किया?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Meselson and Stahl grew E. coli in a medium containing ¹⁵NH₄Cl (a heavy isotope of Nitrogen) for many generations. This resulted in the incorporation of ¹⁵N into the newly synthesized DNA. This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from the normal DNA by centrifugation in a CsCl density gradient. Then they transferred the cells into a medium with normal ¹⁴NH₄Cl and took samples at various definite time intervals as the cells multiplied. The DNA that was extracted from the culture one generation after the transfer from ¹⁵N to ¹⁴N medium had a hybrid or intermediate density. DNA extracted from the culture after another generation was composed of equal amounts of this hybrid DNA and of ‘light’ DNA.
(b) CsCl density gradient centrifugation was used because it separates DNA molecules based on their densities. The heavy DNA with ¹⁵N settled lower down the tube than the light DNA with ¹⁴N. The hybrid DNA (¹⁵N-¹⁴N) settled at a level intermediate between the heavy and light DNA, which was crucial for their conclusion.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
Describe the process of translation in a bacterium, covering the following stages:
(a) Initiation (charging of tRNA and formation of initiation complex)
(b) Elongation (polypeptide chain formation)
(c) Termination
एक जीवाणु में स्थानांतरण की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन करें, जिसमें निम्नलिखित चरण शामिल हों:
(a) समारंभन (tRNA का आवेशन और समारंभन सम्मिश्र का निर्माण)
(b) दीर्घीकरण (पॉलीपेप्टाइड श्रृंखला का निर्माण)
(c) समापन
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Initiation: Involves the charging or aminoacylation of tRNA, where a specific amino acid is activated and linked to its cognate tRNA. The small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG). Then, the initiator tRNA (carrying methionine) binds to the start codon. Finally, the large ribosomal subunit binds to this complex, forming the complete initiation complex.
(b) Elongation: A second charged tRNA with an appropriate anticodon binds to the A-site of the ribosome. A peptide bond is formed between the amino acid on the initiator tRNA (at the P-site) and the amino acid on the tRNA at the A-site. The ribosome then translocates along the mRNA, moving the tRNA from the A-site to the P-site, and the uncharged tRNA from the P-site to the E-site, from where it exits. This cycle repeats.
(c) Termination: Elongation continues until a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA) on the mRNA reaches the A-site. Release factors bind to the stop codon, causing the hydrolysis of the bond between the polypeptide chain and the tRNA at the P-site. The completed polypeptide is released, and the ribosomal subunits dissociate from the mRNA.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A student was studying gene regulation and came across the lac operon in E. coli. Explain the regulation of the lac operon in the following two scenarios:
(a) When lactose is absent in the culture medium.
(b) When lactose is present in the culture medium.
एक छात्र जीन नियमन का अध्ययन कर रहा था और उसे ई. कोलाई में लैक प्रचालेक (lac operon) के बारे में पता चला। निम्नलिखित दो परिदृश्यों में लैक प्रचालेक के नियमन की व्याख्या करें:
(a) जब संवर्धन माध्यम में लैक्टोज अनुपस्थित हो।
(b) जब संवर्धन माध्यम में लैक्टोज उपस्थित हो।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) When lactose is absent: The regulator gene (i) synthesizes a repressor protein. This repressor protein binds to the operator region (o) of the operon. This binding prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes (z, y, and a). As a result, the enzymes required for lactose metabolism are not synthesized.
(b) When lactose is present: Lactose (or its metabolite allolactose) acts as an inducer. It binds to the repressor protein, causing a conformational change that inactivates it. The inactivated repressor cannot bind to the operator region. This allows RNA polymerase to access the promoter and transcribe the structural genes z, y, and a. The transcription leads to the synthesis of enzymes (β-galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase) necessary for lactose metabolism.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A DNA segment has a total of 2000 nucleotides, out of which 520 are Adenine containing nucleotides. Calculate the number of pyrimidine bases in this DNA segment.
(b) Explain the process of DNA replication in E. coli, highlighting the role of DNA polymerase and the reason for the discontinuous synthesis of one strand.
(a) एक DNA खंड में कुल 2000 न्यूक्लियोटाइड हैं, जिनमें से 520 एडेनिन युक्त न्यूक्लियोटाइड हैं। इस DNA खंड में पाइरिमिडीन क्षारकों की संख्या की गणना कीजिए।
(b) E. coli में DNA प्रतिकृति की प्रक्रिया की व्याख्या कीजिए, जिसमें DNA पॉलिमरेज़ की भूमिका और एक रज्जुक के असंतत संश्लेषण के कारण पर प्रकाश डाला गया हो।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) According to Chargaff's rule, A=T and G=C.
Number of Adenine (A) = 520. Therefore, Number of Thymine (T) = 520.
Total number of A+T = 520 + 520 = 1040.
Total nucleotides = 2000.
Number of G+C = 2000 - 1040 = 960.
Since G=C, Number of Guanine (G) = 480 and Number of Cytosine (C) = 480.
Pyrimidine bases are Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T).
Total pyrimidines = C + T = 480 + 520 = 1000.

(b) DNA replication in E. coli is semi-conservative. The main enzyme is DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. It polymerises nucleotides in the 5'→3' direction. Since the two strands of the DNA helix are anti-parallel, one strand with polarity 3'→5' acts as a template for continuous synthesis (leading strand). The other strand with polarity 5'→3' acts as a template for discontinuous synthesis in the form of short fragments called Okazaki fragments (lagging strand). These fragments are later joined together by the enzyme DNA ligase.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Differentiate between template strand and coding strand of a transcription unit.
(b) A segment of a template strand in a transcription unit is: 3'–ATGCATGCATGC–5'. Write the sequence of (i) its complementary coding strand and (ii) the mRNA transcribed from it.
(c) Explain the role of RNA polymerase in the process of transcription in bacteria.
(a) एक अनुलेखन इकाई के टेम्पलेट रज्जुक और कूटलेखन रज्जुक के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(b) एक अनुलेखन इकाई में टेम्पलेट रज्जुक का एक खंड है: 3'–ATGCATGCATGC–5'। (i) इसके पूरक कूटलेखन रज्जुक और (ii) इससे अनुलेखित mRNA का अनुक्रम लिखिए।
(c) जीवाणु में अनुलेखन की प्रक्रिया में RNA पॉलिमरेज़ की भूमिका की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Template Strand: It has polarity 3'→5'. It acts as a template for the synthesis of mRNA during transcription. The sequence of mRNA is complementary to this strand (with U in place of T).
Coding Strand: It has polarity 5'→3'. It does not code for anything. Its sequence is the same as that of the mRNA transcribed (except that T is present instead of U).

(b) Given template strand: 3'–ATGCATGCATGC–5'
(i) Complementary coding strand: 5'–TACGTACGTACG–3'
(ii) mRNA transcribed: 5'–UACGUACGUACG–3'

(c) In bacteria, a single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the transcription of all types of RNA. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and initiates transcription (initiation). It uses nucleoside triphosphates as a substrate and polymerises in a template-dependent fashion following the rule of complementarity. It facilitates the opening of the helix and continues the elongation of the RNA chain. When it reaches the terminator region, the nascent RNA falls off, as does the RNA polymerase, terminating the process.
6

Evolution

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 1 Marks Short Answer
What is the example of divergent evolution ?
अभिसारी विकास का उदाहरण क्या है ?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
An example of divergent evolution is the forelimbs of vertebrates, such as the human arm, bat wing, and whale flipper, which share a common origin but perform different functions.

अभिसारी विकास का उदाहरण कशेरुकियों के अग्रपाद हैं, जैसे मानव भुजा, चमगादड़ का पंख और व्हेल का फ्लिपर, जिनकी उत्पत्ति समान है लेकिन कार्य भिन्न हैं।
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the key steps involved in Oparin and Haldane's hypothesis regarding the origin of life on Earth.
पृथ्वी पर जीवन की उत्पत्ति के संबंध में ओपेरिन और हाल्डेन की परिकल्पना में शामिल प्रमुख चरणों का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Oparin and Haldane proposed that the early Earth's atmosphere was reducing, containing gases like methane, ammonia, water vapor, and hydrogen. Energy from lightning and UV radiation caused these simple inorganic molecules to react, forming complex organic molecules (e.g., amino acids, sugars). These molecules accumulated in oceans, forming a 'primordial soup,' eventually leading to the formation of self-replicating structures and the first life forms.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain how homologous and analogous structures provide evidence for evolution. Give one example for each.
समजात और समवृत्ति संरचनाएँ किस प्रकार विकास के प्रमाण प्रस्तुत करती हैं, समझाइए। प्रत्येक का एक-एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Homologous structures are organs with similar basic structure and embryonic origin but different functions, indicating common ancestry (divergent evolution). E.g., forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah, human. Analogous structures are organs with different basic structure and embryonic origin but similar functions, indicating adaptation to similar environments (convergent evolution). E.g., wings of insects and birds.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Briefly describe the 'Hardy-Weinberg Principle' and state any two factors that can affect it.
'हार्डी-वीनबर्ग सिद्धांत' का संक्षिप्त वर्णन कीजिए और किन्हीं दो कारकों का उल्लेख कीजिए जो इसे प्रभावित कर सकते हैं।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that allele frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary influences. It describes a theoretical non-evolving population. Factors affecting it include: gene migration or gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination, and natural selection.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the key experiments performed by S.L. Miller and H.C. Urey that provided evidence for the chemical evolution of life. What were the main findings?
एस.एल. मिलर और एच.सी. यूरे द्वारा किए गए प्रमुख प्रयोगों का वर्णन कीजिए जिन्होंने जीवन के रासायनिक विकास का प्रमाण प्रदान किया। मुख्य निष्कर्ष क्या थे?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Miller and Urey created an apparatus that simulated early Earth conditions (high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere with CH4, NH3, H2, H2O, and no free O2). They passed electric discharges through this mixture to simulate lightning. After a week, they analyzed the chemical content and found the formation of amino acids, sugars, nitrogen bases, and other complex organic compounds, supporting the idea that life could have originated from non-living organic molecules.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between divergent evolution and convergent evolution with suitable examples.
अपसारी विकास और अभिसारी विकास के बीच उपयुक्त उदाहरणों के साथ अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Divergent evolution is the process where species with a common ancestor evolve and accumulate differences, resulting in new species. This often leads to homologous structures. Example: Darwin's finches evolving different beaks from a common ancestor. Convergent evolution is the process where unrelated species evolve similar traits independently due to adapting to similar environments. This often leads to analogous structures. Example: Wings of birds and insects.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of 'adaptive radiation' using the example of Australian marsupials.
ऑस्ट्रेलियाई मार्सुपियल्स के उदाहरण का उपयोग करके 'अनुकूली विकिरण' की अवधारणा को समझाइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other geographical areas. Australian marsupials are an excellent example. From a single ancestral marsupial stock, various marsupials like the kangaroo, koala, bandicoot, and marsupial mole evolved, each adapted to different habitats and lifestyles within the Australian continent.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain how the concept of 'adaptive radiation' illustrates divergent evolution using an example.
अनुकूली विकिरण की अवधारणा किस प्रकार अपसारी विकास को दर्शाती है, एक उदाहरण सहित समझाइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats). This leads to divergent evolution as a single ancestral stock gives rise to multiple new species adapted to different environments. For example, Darwin's finches in the Galapagos Islands evolved from a single seed-eating ancestor into various forms with modified beaks for different food sources.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between analogous and homologous organs with respect to their evolutionary significance. Provide one example for each.
समरूप और समजात अंगों के बीच उनके विकासात्मक महत्व के संदर्भ में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। प्रत्येक का एक-एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Homologous organs are anatomically similar but perform different functions. They indicate divergent evolution from a common ancestor. Example: Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah, and human. Analogous organs are anatomically different but perform similar functions. They indicate convergent evolution due to similar environmental pressures. Example: Wings of insects and birds.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of 'natural selection' as proposed by Darwin. How does industrial melanism in peppered moths (Biston betularia) serve as a classic example of natural selection in action?
डार्विन द्वारा प्रस्तावित 'प्राकृतिक चयन' की अवधारणा की व्याख्या कीजिए। काली मिर्च के पतंगों (बिस्टन बेटुलारिया) में औद्योगिक मेलानिज़्म किस प्रकार प्राकृतिक चयन का एक उत्कृष्ट उदाहरण है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Natural selection is the process where organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring. In industrial melanism, before industrialization, light-colored moths were camouflaged against light-colored lichens on trees and survived better. Post-industrialization, pollution darkened tree trunks, making dark-colored moths better camouflaged and thus selected for, while light-colored moths were easily preyed upon. This shift in moth population demonstrates natural selection.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A population of beetles has two alleles for colour: 'B' for black and 'b' for brown. In a population of 1000 beetles, 360 are brown (bb). Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, calculate the following:
(a) The frequencies of the 'b' and 'B' alleles.
(b) The frequencies of the genotypes BB and Bb.
(c) The number of heterozygous individuals in the population.
(d) Name any two factors that can disrupt this equilibrium.
भृंगों की एक समष्टि में रंग के लिए दो युग्मविकल्पी हैं: 'B' काले रंग के लिए और 'b' भूरे रंग के लिए। 1000 भृंगों की एक समष्टि में, 360 भूरे (bb) हैं। यह मानते हुए कि समष्टि हार्डी-वेनबर्ग साम्यावस्था में है, निम्नलिखित की गणना करें:
(क) 'b' और 'B' युग्मविकल्पियों की आवृत्तियाँ।
(ख) जीनप्ररूप BB और Bb की आवृत्तियाँ।
(ग) समष्टि में विषमयुग्मजी व्यक्तियों की संख्या।
(घ) ऐसे किन्हीं दो कारकों के नाम बताइए जो इस साम्यावस्था को बाधित कर सकते हैं।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Frequency of brown beetles (genotype bb), q² = 360/1000 = 0.36. Therefore, the frequency of allele 'b' (q) = √0.36 = 0.6. Since p + q = 1, the frequency of allele 'B' (p) = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4.
(b) Frequency of genotype BB (p²) = (0.4)² = 0.16. Frequency of genotype Bb (2pq) = 2 * 0.4 * 0.6 = 0.48.
(c) The number of heterozygous individuals (Bb) = Frequency of Bb × Total population = 0.48 × 1000 = 480 beetles.
(d) Two factors that can disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are: Gene flow (or gene migration) and Genetic drift. (Also acceptable: Mutation, Natural selection, Non-random mating).
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A population of beetles is split into two by the formation of a river. Over time, the two populations become reproductively isolated and form new species. Identify and explain this type of speciation.
(b) Describe three pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms that could prevent interbreeding if the two beetle populations were to meet again.
(a) एक नदी के बनने से भृंगों (बीटल) की एक समष्टि दो भागों में विभाजित हो जाती है। समय के साथ, दोनों समष्टियाँ जनन रूप से पृथक हो जाती हैं और नई प्रजातियों का निर्माण करती हैं। इस प्रकार की प्रजाति-उद्‍भवन (speciation) को पहचानें और समझाएँ।
(b) तीन युग्मनज-पूर्व (pre-zygotic) पृथक्करण क्रियाविधियों का वर्णन करें जो इन दो भृंग समष्टियों के फिर से मिलने पर अंतःप्रजनन को रोक सकती हैं।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The type of speciation is Allopatric Speciation. This occurs when a population is divided by a geographical barrier (like a river), preventing gene flow. The isolated populations then evolve independently due to different selective pressures, genetic drift, and mutations, eventually leading to reproductive isolation and the formation of new species.
(b) Three pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms could be:
1. **Ecological/Habitat Isolation:** The two populations may have adapted to different habitats (e.g., one on the riverbank, one in the forest) and thus do not meet to mate.
2. **Temporal Isolation:** The mating seasons of the two populations might have shifted to different times of the year.
3. **Behavioral/Mating Isolation:** The courtship rituals or mating signals (e.g., specific pheromones or dance patterns) may have diverged, so individuals of one population are no longer attracted to the other.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A scientist studying fossils finds that in a particular layer of rock, the fossils of an organism 'X' are abundant. In the layers above, fossils of 'X' disappear and fossils of a more complex organism 'Y' appear, which share some structural similarities with 'X'. In the topmost layers, fossils of 'Y' are also replaced by an even more complex organism 'Z'.
(a) What does this fossil distribution pattern suggest about the evolutionary relationship between X, Y, and Z?
(b) How does this evidence support the theory of evolution?
(c) Mention two other types of evidence for evolution, besides palaeontology.
एक वैज्ञानिक जीवाश्मों का अध्ययन करते हुए पाता है कि चट्टान की एक विशेष परत में, जीव 'X' के जीवाश्म प्रचुर मात्रा में हैं। ऊपर की परतों में, 'X' के जीवाश्म गायब हो जाते हैं और एक अधिक जटिल जीव 'Y' के जीवाश्म दिखाई देते हैं, जिसकी कुछ संरचनात्मक समानताएँ 'X' से हैं। सबसे ऊपरी परतों में, 'Y' के जीवाश्म भी एक और भी अधिक जटिल जीव 'Z' द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित हो जाते हैं।
(a) यह जीवाश्म वितरण पैटर्न X, Y, और Z के बीच विकासीय संबंध के बारे में क्या बताता है?
(b) यह साक्ष्य विकास के सिद्धांत का समर्थन कैसे करता है?
(c) पुराजीव विज्ञान (palaeontology) के अलावा, विकास के लिए दो अन्य प्रकार के साक्ष्यों का उल्लेख करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The fossil distribution suggests a direct evolutionary lineage where organism X likely evolved into Y, and Y evolved into Z over geological time. The appearance of more complex forms in younger rock layers (higher up) indicates progressive evolution. The structural similarities support the idea of descent with modification from a common ancestor.
(b) This evidence supports evolution by demonstrating that: (i) Life forms have changed over time (are not static). (ii) Different life forms appeared at different times in Earth's history. (iii) It shows transitional forms, providing a record of the sequence of evolutionary change from simpler to more complex organisms.
(c) Two other types of evidence for evolution are:
1. **Comparative Anatomy and Morphology:** Evidence from homologous and analogous structures, as well as vestigial organs.
2. **Biochemical Evidence:** Similarities in proteins, DNA sequences, and metabolic pathways among different species.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Differentiate between homologous and analogous structures, providing one example for each from the animal kingdom.
(b) How do these structures provide evidence for evolution?
(c) A bat's wing and a butterfly's wing are often cited as examples of a specific type of evolutionary evidence. Identify this type and explain the evolutionary phenomenon it represents.
(क) प्राणी जगत से प्रत्येक का एक उदाहरण देते हुए, समजात और समवृत्ति संरचनाओं के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ख) ये संरचनाएँ विकास के लिए प्रमाण कैसे प्रदान करती हैं?
(ग) चमगादड़ के पंख और तितली के पंख को अक्सर एक विशिष्ट प्रकार के विकासवादी प्रमाण के उदाहरण के रूप में उद्धृत किया जाता है। इस प्रकार की पहचान करें और उस विकासवादी घटना की व्याख्या करें जिसका यह प्रतिनिधित्व करता है।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Homologous structures have a common embryonic origin and similar basic structure but perform different functions (e.g., forelimbs of humans, cheetahs, whales, and bats). Analogous structures have different origins and structures but perform similar functions (e.g., wings of a butterfly and a bird).
(b) Homologous structures suggest a common ancestry and divergent evolution, where related species adapt to different needs. Analogous structures suggest convergent evolution, where unrelated species evolve similar traits independently to adapt to similar environments or ecological niches.
(c) The wings of a bat and a butterfly are analogous structures. This represents convergent evolution. It shows that different organisms, without a recent common ancestor, can independently evolve similar features as adaptations to a similar way of life (in this case, flying).
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
Explain the Miller-Urey experiment with respect to the chemical evolution of life.
(a) What was the aim of the experiment?
(b) Mention the gaseous mixture and the conditions they created in the apparatus.
(c) What were the key observations or products formed?
(d) What significant conclusion was drawn from this experiment?
जीवन के रासायनिक विकास के संबंध में मिलर-यूरे के प्रयोग की व्याख्या कीजिए।
(क) प्रयोग का उद्देश्य क्या था?
(ख) उपकरण में बनाए गए गैसीय मिश्रण और दशाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
(ग) प्रमुख अवलोकन या निर्मित उत्पाद क्या थे?
(घ) इस प्रयोग से क्या महत्वपूर्ण निष्कर्ष निकाला गया?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The aim was to simulate the conditions thought to be present on the early Earth and to test the hypothesis that organic molecules could be synthesized from inorganic precursors.
(b) Gaseous mixture: Methane (CH₄), Ammonia (NH₃), Hydrogen (H₂), and Water vapour (H₂O) in a closed flask. Conditions: High temperature (800°C) and continuous electric sparks to simulate lightning.
(c) After a week, they observed the formation of a collection of organic molecules in the condensed water, including amino acids like glycine, alanine, and aspartic acid.
(d) The significant conclusion was that organic molecules, the building blocks of life, could indeed form abiotically under the primitive Earth's conditions. This provided strong evidence for the theory of chemical evolution.
7

Human Health and Disease

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are two distinct processes of gamete formation. Explain two key differences between these processes regarding the number of gametes produced and the timing of initiation.
शुक्राणुजनन और अंडजनन युग्मक निर्माण की दो अलग-अलग प्रक्रियाएँ हैं। इन प्रक्रियाओं के बीच युग्मकों की संख्या और आरंभ होने के समय के संबंध में दो प्रमुख अंतरों की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Spermatogenesis produces four functional spermatozoa from one primary spermatocyte, while oogenesis produces only one functional ovum and two polar bodies from one primary oocyte. Spermatogenesis initiates at puberty in males and continues throughout life, whereas oogenesis initiates during fetal development in females and ceases around menopause.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the journey of a sperm from the seminiferous tubules until it exits the male reproductive system, listing the structures it passes through sequentially.
एक शुक्राणु की वृषण नलिकाओं से लेकर पुरुष प्रजनन प्रणाली से बाहर निकलने तक की यात्रा का वर्णन कीजिए, उन संरचनाओं को क्रमिक रूप से सूचीबद्ध करते हुए जिनसे यह गुजरता है।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules, then pass through the rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and finally the urethra, from where they are expelled.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between implantation and placentation in human reproduction. Explain the significance of each.
मानव प्रजनन में आरोपण और अपरा-निर्माण के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। प्रत्येक के महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Implantation is the process where the blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. Its significance is the establishment of pregnancy. Placentation is the formation of the placenta, which is a structural and functional unit between the developing embryo and the maternal body. Its significance is to facilitate nutrient supply, waste removal, and hormone production for fetal development.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of the corpus luteum in maintaining pregnancy. What happens if the corpus luteum degenerates prematurely?
गर्भावस्था को बनाए रखने में कॉर्पस ल्यूटियम की भूमिका समझाइए। यदि कॉर्पस ल्यूटियम समय से पहले पतित हो जाता है तो क्या होता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is essential for maintaining the uterine endometrium, making it suitable for implantation and further development of the embryo. If it degenerates prematurely, the endometrium disintegrates, leading to abortion or miscarriage.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are two distinct processes of gamete formation. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis based on: (a) site of occurrence, (b) number of gametes produced from one primary germ cell, and (c) continuity of gamete production.
शुक्राणुजनन और अंडजनन युग्मक निर्माण की दो अलग-अलग प्रक्रियाएँ हैं। शुक्राणुजनन और अंडजनन के बीच निम्नलिखित आधारों पर अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए: (क) होने का स्थान, (ख) एक प्राथमिक जनन कोशिका से उत्पन्न युग्मकों की संख्या, और (ग) युग्मक उत्पादन की निरंतरता।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
(a) Spermatogenesis occurs in testes, oogenesis occurs in ovaries. (b) Spermatogenesis produces four spermatozoa from one primary spermatocyte, oogenesis produces one ovum and two polar bodies from one primary oocyte. (c) Spermatogenesis is continuous from puberty, oogenesis is discontinuous (arrested at prophase I and metaphase II).
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the role of Sertoli cells and Leydig cells in human spermatogenesis.
मानव शुक्राणुजनन में सर्टोली कोशिकाओं और लेडिग कोशिकाओं की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sertoli cells provide nourishment to the developing spermatozoa and secrete factors that help in spermiogenesis. Leydig cells (interstitial cells) synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called androgens, which are crucial for spermatogenesis.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the hormonal regulation of the menstrual cycle, specifically mentioning the roles of FSH and LH during the follicular and ovulatory phases.
मासिक धर्म चक्र के हार्मोनल विनियमन की व्याख्या कीजिए, विशेष रूप से पुटकीय और अंडोत्सर्ग चरणों के दौरान एफएसएच और एलएच की भूमिकाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
During the follicular phase, FSH stimulates follicular development and estrogen secretion. Rising estrogen levels stimulate LH and FSH surge. The LH surge triggers ovulation (release of ovum) and also induces luteinization of the ruptured follicle to form the corpus luteum.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
A human embryo needs to implant successfully in the uterus for a successful pregnancy. Describe the process of implantation and state its significance.
एक सफल गर्भावस्था के लिए मानव भ्रूण को गर्भाशय में सफलतापूर्वक प्रत्यारोपित होने की आवश्यकता होती है। आरोपण की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन कीजिए और इसके महत्व को बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Implantation is the process where the blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. The trophoblast cells of the blastocyst adhere to the uterine wall and secrete enzymes to penetrate it. Significance: It establishes a physical and physiological connection between the mother and the developing embryo, allowing for nutrient exchange and waste removal.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Outline the major events that occur during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle in a human female.
एक मानव महिला में मासिक धर्म चक्र के पुटकीय चरण के दौरान होने वाली प्रमुख घटनाओं का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
During the follicular phase, the primary follicle grows and matures into a Graafian follicle under the influence of FSH. Simultaneously, the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation, stimulated by estrogens secreted by the growing follicles.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Trace the path of a sperm from the seminiferous tubules until it reaches the ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube for fertilization.
शुक्रजनक नलिकाओं से शुक्राणु के मार्ग का पता लगाएँ जब तक कि वह निषेचन के लिए डिंबवाहिनी के एम्पुलरी-इस्थमिक जंक्शन तक नहीं पहुँच जाता।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules, then move to the rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra. From the urethra, it enters the female reproductive tract, passing through the vagina, cervix, uterus, and finally reaching the ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A pregnant woman visits a doctor in her third trimester. She is concerned about the process of childbirth and lactation. Explain the complex neuro-endocrine mechanism involved in initiating and regulating parturition in her body. Also, describe how lactation is initiated post-delivery.
एक गर्भवती महिला अपनी तीसरी तिमाही में डॉक्टर के पास जाती है। वह प्रसव और स्तनपान की प्रक्रिया को लेकर चिंतित है। उसके शरीर में प्रसव (पारट्यूरिशन) को प्रारंभ करने और नियंत्रित करने में शामिल जटिल न्यूरो-एंडोक्राइन क्रियाविधि की व्याख्या करें। यह भी वर्णन करें कि प्रसव के बाद दुग्ध-स्रवण (लैक्टेशन) कैसे शुरू होता है।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
Parturition is induced by a complex neuro-endocrine mechanism involving cortisol, estrogens, and oxytocin.
**Mechanism of Parturition:**
1. **Initiation:** Signals for parturition originate from the fully developed fetus and the placenta, which induce mild uterine contractions called the fetal ejection reflex.
2. **Hormonal Role:** This triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.
3. **Positive Feedback Loop:** Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles, causing stronger contractions. This, in turn, stimulates further secretion of oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues, resulting in stronger and stronger contractions.
4. **Expulsion:** This leads to the expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal.

**Initiation of Lactation:**
During pregnancy, the breasts undergo differentiation. After delivery, the sudden drop in progesterone and estrogen levels allows the hormone prolactin (from the pituitary) to act on the mammary glands, stimulating milk production (lactogenesis). The initial milk produced, called colostrum, is rich in antibodies.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A woman's menstrual cycle lasts for 28 days.
(a) Explain the major events that occur in the uterus and ovary during the follicular and luteal phases of the menstrual cycle.
(b) Correlate the uterine and ovarian events with the levels of pituitary (FSH, LH) and ovarian (estrogen, progesterone) hormones during these phases.
एक महिला का आर्तव चक्र 28 दिनों का होता है।
(a) आर्तव चक्र के पुटकीय (फॉलिक्यूलर) और पीतपिंडी (ल्यूटियल) प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय में होने वाली प्रमुख घटनाओं की व्याख्या करें।
(b) इन प्रावस्थाओं के दौरान गर्भाशय और अंडाशय की घटनाओं को पीयूष ग्रंथि (FSH, LH) और अंडाशयी (एस्ट्रोजन, प्रोजेस्टेरोन) हार्मोन के स्तरों के साथ सहसंबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) **Follicular Phase:** In the ovary, the primary follicles grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle. In the uterus, the endometrium regenerates through proliferation.
**Luteal Phase:** In the ovary, the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum. In the uterus, the endometrium further thickens and its glands become secretory, preparing for implantation. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, causing the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation.

(b) **Follicular Phase:** Gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increase, stimulating follicular development and secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles. Estrogen causes the proliferation of the endometrium.
**Luteal Phase:** The rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) induces rupture of the Graafian follicle and ovulation. After ovulation, the corpus luteum is formed which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. In the absence of fertilization, the decline in progesterone levels causes menstruation.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A woman is experiencing a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.
(a) On which day of the cycle is ovulation most likely to occur?
(b) Describe the specific events that occur in the ovary and uterus during the follicular phase (proliferative phase).
(c) Explain the hormonal changes involving FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone that lead to and follow ovulation.
एक महिला 28-दिवसीय नियमित आर्तव चक्र का अनुभव कर रही है।
(a) चक्र के किस दिन अंडोत्सर्ग होने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है?
(b) पुटकीय प्रावस्था (प्रचुरोद्भवी प्रावस्था) के दौरान अंडाशय और गर्भाशय में होने वाली विशिष्ट घटनाओं का वर्णन करें।
(c) FSH, LH, एस्ट्रोजन और प्रोजेस्टेरोन से जुड़े हार्मोनल परिवर्तनों की व्याख्या करें जो अंडोत्सर्ग का कारण बनते हैं और उसके बाद होते हैं।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Ovulation is most likely to occur around the 14th day of a 28-day cycle.

(b) Events during the follicular phase:
In the Ovary: The primary follicles grow to become fully mature Graafian follicles. This is stimulated by FSH and LH.
In the Uterus: The endometrium regenerates through proliferation. This is stimulated by the increasing levels of ovarian hormones (estrogen).

(c) Hormonal Changes:
- Before Ovulation: FSH and LH levels gradually increase, stimulating follicular development and estrogen secretion. Estrogen levels rise, peaking just before ovulation. This high level of estrogen triggers a rapid secretion of LH (LH surge) which induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle, leading to ovulation.
- After Ovulation: The remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum, which secretes large amounts of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Describe the sequence of events from the entry of sperm into the ovum until the formation of the zygote in a human female.
(b) What is implantation? Explain how the blastocyst gets embedded into the uterine wall.
(c) Name the embryonic layers that are formed during gastrulation.
(a) मानव मादा में शुक्राणु के अंडाणु में प्रवेश से लेकर युग्मनज के निर्माण तक की घटनाओं के क्रम का वर्णन करें।
(b) अंतर्रोपण क्या है? व्याख्या करें कि ब्लास्टोसिस्ट गर्भाशय की दीवार में कैसे अंतःस्थापित होता है।
(c) गैस्ट्रुलेशन के दौरान बनने वाली भ्रूणीय परतों के नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Sequence of events during fertilization:
1. Acrosomal reaction: The sperm's acrosome releases enzymes (like hyaluronidase) to penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida of the ovum.
2. Cortical reaction: Once a sperm fuses with the ovum's plasma membrane, it induces changes in the zona pellucida that block the entry of additional sperms (polyspermy block).
3. Completion of Meiosis II: The entry of sperm induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte, forming a second polar body and a haploid ovum (ootid).
4. Syngamy: The haploid nucleus of the sperm and that of the ovum fuse together to form a diploid zygote.

(b) Implantation is the process by which the blastocyst attaches to and embeds itself in the endometrium of the uterus. The trophoblast layer of the blastocyst gets attached to the endometrium. The uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst, resulting in it becoming fully embedded in the endometrium.

(c) The three embryonic layers (germ layers) formed during gastrulation are: Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and Endoderm.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A woman experiences a regular 28-day menstrual cycle.
(a) On which day of her cycle is she most likely to ovulate? Name the two pituitary hormones that are involved in ovulation.
(b) What happens to the Graafian follicle after ovulation? Describe the hormonal role of the structure formed.
(c) If fertilization does not occur, what changes will take place in the uterus and why?
एक महिला 28-दिवसीय नियमित मासिक धर्म चक्र का अनुभव करती है।
(a) अपने चक्र के किस दिन उसके अंडोत्सर्ग करने की सबसे अधिक संभावना है? अंडोत्सर्ग में शामिल दो पीयूषिका हार्मोन के नाम बताइए।
(b) अंडोत्सर्ग के बाद ग्राफी पुटक (ग्राफियन फॉलिकल) का क्या होता है? बनी हुई संरचना की हार्मोनल भूमिका का वर्णन करें।
(c) यदि निषेचन नहीं होता है, तो गर्भाशय में क्या परिवर्तन होंगे और क्यों?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Ovulation is most likely to occur around the 14th day of a 28-day cycle. The two pituitary hormones involved are Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH). A surge in LH level (LH surge) is the primary trigger for ovulation. (2 marks)
(b) After ovulation, the ruptured Graafian follicle transforms into a yellow glandular structure called the Corpus Luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium, making it receptive to implantation of the fertilized ovum. (2 marks)
(c) If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates. This causes a fall in the level of progesterone, leading to the disintegration of the endometrium. This results in menstruation, marking the start of a new cycle. (1 mark)
8

Microbes in Human Welfare

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain how microbes are utilized in the production of various household products, specifically mentioning two examples and the role of the respective microbes.
विभिन्न घरेलू उत्पादों के निर्माण में सूक्ष्मजीवों का उपयोग कैसे किया जाता है, इसका वर्णन कीजिए। दो उदाहरणों और संबंधित सूक्ष्मजीवों की भूमिका का विशेष उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Microbes are used in producing household products like curd and bread. For curd, Lactobacillus bacteria convert milk sugar (lactose) into lactic acid, which coagulates and partially digests milk proteins. For bread, yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) ferments sugars in dough, producing CO2 that causes the dough to rise and gives bread its texture.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Discuss the role of microbes as biocontrol agents in agriculture. Provide one example of a microbial biocontrol agent and its target pest/disease.
कृषि में सूक्ष्मजीवों की जैव नियंत्रण कारकों के रूप में भूमिका पर चर्चा कीजिए। एक सूक्ष्मजीवी जैव नियंत्रण कारक और उसके लक्षित कीट/रोग का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Microbes act as biocontrol agents by naturally regulating pest populations or controlling plant diseases, reducing reliance on chemical pesticides. This is an eco-friendly approach. An example is Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt), which is used to control insect larvae like butterfly caterpillars.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
How do microbes contribute to the production of biogas? Name the group of bacteria primarily responsible for this process and the key component of biogas.
सूक्ष्मजीव बायोगैस के उत्पादन में कैसे योगदान करते हैं? इस प्रक्रिया के लिए मुख्य रूप से जिम्मेदार जीवाणुओं के समूह और बायोगैस के प्रमुख घटक का नाम बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Microbes, specifically anaerobic bacteria, decompose organic matter (like cow dung, agricultural waste) in the absence of oxygen to produce a mixture of gases known as biogas. The group of bacteria primarily responsible is methanogens (e.g., Methanobacterium). The key component of biogas is methane.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between primary and secondary sewage treatment processes. What is the main objective of each stage?
प्राथमिक और द्वितीयक वाहित मल उपचार प्रक्रियाओं के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। प्रत्येक चरण का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Primary treatment involves physical removal of large and small particles from sewage through filtration and sedimentation. Its main objective is to remove solid waste. Secondary treatment involves biological degradation of organic matter by aerobic microbes in aeration tanks. Its main objective is to reduce the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of the effluent.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the significance of mycorrhizal associations in plant nutrition. Name the group of organisms involved in forming these associations.
पादप पोषण में माइकोराइजा सहजीवन के महत्व का वर्णन कीजिए। इन सहजीवनों के निर्माण में शामिल जीवों के समूह का नाम बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Mycorrhizal associations are symbiotic relationships between fungi and plant roots. The fungi help the plant absorb essential nutrients, particularly phosphorus, from the soil more efficiently, while the plant provides sugars to the fungi. This enhances plant growth and tolerance to environmental stresses. The group of organisms involved is fungi.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
How do microbes play a crucial role in the primary treatment of sewage water in a Sewage Treatment Plant (STP)? Describe the main physical processes involved.
एक सीवेज उपचार संयंत्र (STP) में सूक्ष्मजीव सीवेज जल के प्राथमिक उपचार में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका कैसे निभाते हैं? इसमें शामिल मुख्य भौतिक प्रक्रियाओं का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Microbes are not directly involved in primary treatment. Primary treatment involves physical removal of large and small particles through filtration and sedimentation. Initially, floating debris is removed by sequential filtration, then grit (soil and small pebbles) is removed by sedimentation.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of lactic acid bacteria (LAB) in the conversion of milk into curd. Mention any two benefits of consuming curd.
दूध को दही में बदलने में लैक्टिक एसिड बैक्टीरिया (LAB) की भूमिका समझाइए। दही के सेवन के कोई दो लाभ बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
LAB produce acids that coagulate and partially digest milk proteins. They also improve nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12. Benefits: improved digestion, checks disease-causing microbes in the stomach.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Discuss the applications of microbes in the production of industrial products, such as antibiotics and organic acids. Name one antibiotic and one organic acid produced by microbes.
एंटीबायोटिक और कार्बनिक अम्लों जैसे औद्योगिक उत्पादों के उत्पादन में सूक्ष्मजीवों के अनुप्रयोगों पर चर्चा करें। सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा उत्पादित एक एंटीबायोटिक और एक कार्बनिक अम्ल का नाम बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Microbes are used in large-scale industrial production through fermentation processes. Antibiotics like Penicillin (from Penicillium notatum) are metabolic byproducts that inhibit the growth of other microbes. Organic acids like Citric acid (from Aspergillus niger) are produced by specific fungi and used in food and pharmaceutical industries.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain how microbes serve as biofertilizers in agriculture. Provide two different examples of microbial biofertilizers and their specific contributions to soil fertility and plant growth.
समझाइए कि कृषि में सूक्ष्मजीव जैव उर्वरकों के रूप में कैसे कार्य करते हैं। सूक्ष्मजैविक जैव उर्वरकों के दो भिन्न उदाहरण दीजिए और मृदा उर्वरता तथा पादप वृद्धि में उनके विशिष्ट योगदानों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Microbes enhance soil fertility and nutrient availability to plants. Example 1: Rhizobium bacteria form symbiotic associations with leguminous plants, fixing atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants. Example 2: Mycorrhizae (fungi) form symbiotic associations with plant roots, enhancing phosphorus uptake and providing drought resistance.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between primary and secondary sewage treatment processes. What is the main objective of each stage in wastewater management?
प्राथमिक और द्वितीयक सीवेज उपचार प्रक्रियाओं के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। अपशिष्ट जल प्रबंधन में प्रत्येक चरण का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Primary treatment: Physical removal of large and small particles from sewage through filtration and sedimentation. Objective: To remove solid waste. Secondary treatment: Biological treatment using aerobic microbes to digest organic matter. Objective: To reduce the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of the effluent.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A farmer growing cotton finds his crop severely damaged by bollworms. Instead of using chemical pesticides, a friend suggests an organic farming approach using a specific bacterium.
(a) Name the bacterium.
(b) Explain how this bacterium is formulated and used by the farmer to act as a biocontrol agent.
(c) Why doesn't the toxin from this bacterium kill the bacterium itself or other insects like bees?
कपास उगाने वाले एक किसान को पता चलता है कि उसकी फसल बोलवर्म (मुकुल कृमि) से गंभीर रूप से क्षतिग्रस्त हो गई है। रासायनिक कीटनाशकों का उपयोग करने के बजाय, एक मित्र एक विशिष्ट जीवाणु का उपयोग करके जैविक खेती के दृष्टिकोण का सुझाव देता है।
(क) जीवाणु का नाम बताइए।
(ख) व्याख्या करें कि इस जीवाणु को कैसे तैयार किया जाता है और किसान द्वारा जैव नियंत्रण कारक के रूप में कैसे उपयोग किया जाता है।
(ग) इस जीवाणु से निकलने वाला विष स्वयं जीवाणु या मधुमक्खियों जैसे अन्य कीटों को क्यों नहीं मारता है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The bacterium is *Bacillus thuringiensis* (Bt).
(b) Spores of *Bacillus thuringiensis* are available in sachets as a dry powder. These are mixed with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants like cotton. When the insect larvae (bollworms) ingest the plant parts, the toxin is released in their gut, killing them.
(c) The toxin exists as an inactive protoxin (crystal protein) in the bacterium. It gets activated only in the alkaline pH of an insect's gut, which solubilizes the crystals. This activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells, creating pores that cause cell swelling and lysis, leading to the death of the insect. Since the bacterium's internal environment and the gut of other non-target insects (like bees) are not alkaline, the protoxin remains inactive and harmless.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A newly established biogas plant in a village is not producing sufficient gas. The villagers are using only cow dung and water in the digester tank. As a biology student, identify two possible reasons for the low gas yield. Explain the three key stages of biogas production that must occur sequentially for optimal output.
एक गाँव में एक नया स्थापित बायोगैस संयंत्र पर्याप्त गैस का उत्पादन नहीं कर रहा है। ग्रामीण डाइजेस्टर टैंक में केवल गोबर और पानी का उपयोग कर रहे हैं। एक जीव विज्ञान के छात्र के रूप में, कम गैस उपज के दो संभावित कारण बताइए। बायोगैस उत्पादन के उन तीन प्रमुख चरणों की व्याख्या करें जो इष्टतम उत्पादन के लिए क्रमिक रूप से होने चाहिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
Two possible reasons for low gas yield:
1. Lack of methanogenic bacteria: The initial slurry might not have a sufficient population of methanogens. Adding a small amount of slurry from a previously working biogas plant can act as an inoculum.
2. Incorrect temperature/pH: The digester tank may not be at the optimal temperature (around 35-40°C) or pH for methanogens to function efficiently.

The three stages of biogas production are:
(i) Solubilisation/Hydrolysis: Complex organic polymers like cellulose, proteins, and fats are broken down into simpler soluble monomers by hydrolytic enzymes produced by fermentative bacteria.
(ii) Acidogenesis: The simple monomers are further converted by acidogenic bacteria into organic acids, primarily acetic acid.
(iii) Methanogenesis: This is the final stage where methanogenic bacteria act on the organic acids to produce a mixture of gases, primarily methane (CH₄), along with carbon dioxide (CO₂) and traces of H₂S. This stage is strictly anaerobic.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A patient who has undergone an organ transplant is prescribed Cyclosporin A. Meanwhile, another patient with high blood cholesterol is prescribed Statins.
(a) Name the microbial sources for Cyclosporin A and Statins.
(b) Explain the mode of action of each of these bioactive molecules in the human body.
(c) Why is Cyclosporin A essential for the organ transplant patient?
एक रोगी जिसका अंग प्रत्यारोपण हुआ है, उसे साइक्लोस्पोरिन ए लेने की सलाह दी जाती है। इस बीच, उच्च रक्त कोलेस्ट्रॉल वाले दूसरे रोगी को स्टैटिन लेने की सलाह दी जाती है।
(क) साइक्लोस्पोरिन ए और स्टैटिन के सूक्ष्मजैविक स्रोतों के नाम बताइए।
(ख) मानव शरीर में इन जैव-सक्रिय अणुओं में से प्रत्येक की क्रिया की विधि की व्याख्या करें।
(ग) अंग प्रत्यारोपण रोगी के लिए साइक्लोस्पोरिन ए क्यों आवश्यक है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Microbial Sources:
Cyclosporin A: Fungus *Trichoderma polysporum*.
Statins: Yeast *Monascus purpureus*.
(b) Mode of Action:
Cyclosporin A: It acts as an immunosuppressive agent by inhibiting the activation of T-lymphocytes, which are responsible for cell-mediated immunity that causes graft rejection.
Statins: They act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol in the body. This lowers blood cholesterol levels.
(c) Cyclosporin A is essential because the body's immune system recognizes the transplanted organ as foreign and mounts an immune response (cell-mediated) to reject it. By suppressing the immune system, particularly T-cells, Cyclosporin A prevents this rejection, allowing the organ to function in the recipient's body.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A dairy farmer wants to produce yoghurt and cheese from milk on a large scale. Name the specific microbes needed for the production of 'Swiss cheese' and yoghurt.
(b) Explain the biochemical processes carried out by these microbes that lead to the formation of these products, highlighting the characteristic features of each (e.g., large holes in cheese, specific taste in yoghurt).
(a) एक डेयरी किसान बड़े पैमाने पर दूध से दही और पनीर का उत्पादन करना चाहता है। 'स्विस चीज़' और दही के उत्पादन के लिए आवश्यक विशिष्ट सूक्ष्मजीवों के नाम बताइए।
(b) इन सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा की जाने वाली उन जैव रासायनिक प्रक्रियाओं की व्याख्या करें जिनके कारण इन उत्पादों का निर्माण होता है, प्रत्येक की विशिष्ट विशेषताओं (जैसे, पनीर में बड़े छिद्र, दही में विशिष्ट स्वाद) पर प्रकाश डालते हुए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a)
- **Swiss Cheese:** The bacterium *Propionibacterium shermanii*.
- **Yoghurt:** *Lactobacillus* species (e.g., *Lactobacillus bulgaricus*) and *Streptococcus thermophilus*.

(b)
- **Swiss Cheese Formation:** *Propionibacterium shermanii* is used for the ripening of Swiss cheese. It grows on the curd and carries out fermentation, producing a large amount of carbon dioxide (CO2). The CO2 gas gets trapped within the cheese matrix, leading to the formation of the characteristic large holes or 'eyes' in Swiss cheese.
- **Yoghurt Formation:** Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) like *Lactobacillus* are added to milk. They grow and ferment the lactose (milk sugar) into lactic acid. The production of lactic acid causes the coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins (casein), leading to the formation of a thick, semi-solid curd with a characteristic tangy flavour. This process converts milk into yoghurt.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A large-scale sewage treatment plant (STP) is being designed for a rapidly growing city. As a biologist, you are consulted on the process. Explain the key roles of microbes in the secondary treatment (biological treatment) stage of the STP. Why is this stage crucial for reducing the pollution potential of sewage before it is released into natural water bodies?
एक तेजी से बढ़ते शहर के लिए एक बड़े पैमाने पर वाहितमल उपचार संयंत्र (STP) डिजाइन किया जा रहा है। एक जीवविज्ञानी के रूप में, आपसे इस प्रक्रिया पर सलाह ली जाती है। STP के द्वितीयक उपचार (जैविक उपचार) चरण में सूक्ष्मजीवों की प्रमुख भूमिकाओं की व्याख्या करें। प्राकृतिक जल निकायों में छोड़े जाने से पहले वाहितमल की प्रदूषण क्षमता को कम करने के लिए यह चरण क्यों महत्वपूर्ण है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
In secondary treatment, the primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows for the vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into 'flocs' (masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh-like structures).

Roles of microbes:
1. **Organic Matter Consumption:** These microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of the effluent. BOD is a measure of the organic matter present in the water.
2. **Formation of Activated Sludge:** Once the BOD is reduced, the effluent is passed into a settling tank where the bacterial 'flocs' are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum.

This stage is crucial because it removes about 90-95% of the organic pollutants, which are the main cause of water pollution. By drastically reducing the BOD, it prevents the depletion of dissolved oxygen in natural water bodies, thus protecting aquatic life.
9

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between cloning vector and plasmid. Why is pBR322 considered a widely used cloning vector in genetic engineering?
क्लोनिंग वाहक और प्लास्मिड के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में pBR322 को व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाने वाला क्लोनिंग वाहक क्यों माना जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A cloning vector is a DNA molecule that can carry foreign genetic material into a host cell, where it can be replicated and/or expressed. A plasmid is a naturally occurring extrachromosomal, self-replicating DNA molecule found in bacteria, which can function as a cloning vector. pBR322 is widely used because it has multiple restriction sites, two selectable markers (ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes), and an origin of replication (ori) that controls copy number.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is 'bioreactor'? Explain its significance in large-scale production of recombinant proteins.
'बायोरिएक्टर' क्या है? पुनर्योगज प्रोटीन के बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन में इसके महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A bioreactor is a large vessel (typically 100-1000 litres) that provides optimal conditions for the growth of cells or microorganisms to produce desired products. (1 mark)
Its significance lies in providing controlled conditions like temperature, pH, aeration, and nutrient supply, which are crucial for obtaining large quantities of recombinant proteins from cell cultures. (2 marks)
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What are cloning vectors? Explain why plasmids are commonly used as cloning vectors in genetic engineering.
क्लोनिंग वाहक क्या होते हैं? आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में प्लास्मिड का उपयोग आमतौर पर क्लोनिंग वाहक के रूप में क्यों किया जाता है, समझाइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Cloning vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate independently in a host cell. (1 mark) Plasmids are commonly used because they are small, autonomously replicating circular DNA molecules, possess selectable markers, and have multiple cloning sites for insertion of foreign DNA. (2 marks for any two valid reasons)
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology. How do they facilitate the creation of recombinant DNA molecules?
पुनर्योगज डीएनए प्रौद्योगिकी में प्रतिबंधन एंजाइमों की भूमिका समझाइए। वे पुनर्योगज डीएनए अणुओं के निर्माण को कैसे सुगम बनाते हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Restriction enzymes recognize specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA and cleave the phosphodiester backbone at or near these recognition sites. This creates sticky ends or blunt ends. Sticky ends are particularly useful because they can form hydrogen bonds with complementary sticky ends from other DNA fragments, allowing DNA ligase to join them, thus facilitating the formation of recombinant DNA.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between cloning vector and plasmid. Why are plasmids commonly used as vectors in genetic engineering?
क्लोनिंग वेक्टर और प्लास्मिड में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में प्लास्मिड का उपयोग आमतौर पर वेक्टर के रूप में क्यों किया जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A cloning vector is any DNA molecule that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate independently in a host cell. A plasmid is a naturally occurring extrachromosomal, self-replicating circular DNA molecule found in bacteria, which can act as a cloning vector. Plasmids are commonly used as vectors because they have an origin of replication, selectable markers, and multiple cloning sites, allowing easy insertion and selection of foreign DNA.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology. How do they facilitate the formation of recombinant DNA?
पुनर्योगज डीएनए प्रौद्योगिकी में प्रतिबंधन एंजाइमों की भूमिका समझाइए। वे पुनर्योगज डीएनए के निर्माण को कैसे सुगम बनाते हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific recognition sequences, creating 'sticky ends' or 'blunt ends'. These sticky ends are complementary to those cut by the same enzyme in another DNA molecule, allowing them to anneal and form recombinant DNA with the help of DNA ligase.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Why is the selectable marker gene an essential component of a cloning vector? Explain its utility.
एक क्लोनिंग वाहक का एक चयन योग्य मार्कर जीन एक आवश्यक घटक क्यों है? इसकी उपयोगिता समझाइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The selectable marker gene helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants from the transformed cells and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. For example, antibiotic resistance genes allow only cells containing the vector to grow in the presence of the antibiotic.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between exonucleases and endonucleases, providing one example for each. How do restriction endonucleases play a crucial role in genetic engineering?
एक्सोन्यूक्लिएज और एंडोन्यूक्लिएज के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए, प्रत्येक का एक उदाहरण दीजिए। आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में प्रतिबंध एंडोन्यूक्लिएज किस प्रकार महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA, e.g., Bal31. Endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA, e.g., EcoRI. Restriction endonucleases are crucial as they cut DNA at specific recognition sequences, creating 'sticky ends' that facilitate the insertion of foreign DNA into a vector.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between gene cloning and DNA amplification. What is the primary technique used for DNA amplification in vitro?
जीन क्लोनिंग और डीएनए प्रवर्धन के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। इन विट्रो में डीएनए प्रवर्धन के लिए उपयोग की जाने वाली प्राथमिक तकनीक क्या है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Gene cloning involves inserting a gene into a vector to produce multiple copies within a host organism. DNA amplification is the process of making many copies of a specific DNA segment in vitro. / The primary technique for DNA amplification in vitro is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is a cloning vector? List any two essential features that a plasmid must possess to be used as a cloning vector.
क्लोनिंग वाहक क्या है? क्लोनिंग वाहक के रूप में उपयोग किए जाने के लिए एक प्लास्मिड में कौन सी दो आवश्यक विशेषताएँ होनी चाहिए?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A cloning vector is a DNA molecule used as a vehicle to artificially carry foreign genetic material into another cell, where it can be replicated and/or expressed. / Essential features: Origin of replication (ori), selectable marker, and cloning sites. (Any two)

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A circular plasmid of 4000 bp has a single recognition site for the restriction enzyme BamHI and two sites for EcoRI. If you perform a double digestion using both enzymes, what will be the number and sizes of the DNA fragments you would obtain? Assume the sites are located as follows: BamHI at 1000 bp, EcoRI at 2000 bp and 3500 bp. Show your reasoning.
(b) Why is it essential for a cloning vector to have a 'selectable marker'? Name one such marker.
(a) 4000 bp के एक वृत्ताकार प्लास्मिड में प्रतिबंधन एंजाइम BamHI के लिए एक एकल पहचान स्थल और EcoRI के लिए दो स्थल हैं। यदि आप दोनों एंजाइमों का उपयोग करके एक दोहरा पाचन करते हैं, तो आपको प्राप्त होने वाले DNA खंडों की संख्या और आकार क्या होंगे? मान लें कि स्थल इस प्रकार स्थित हैं: BamHI 1000 bp पर, EcoRI 2000 bp और 3500 bp पर। अपने तर्क को स्पष्ट करें।
(b) एक क्लोनिंग वाहक में 'वरणात्मक चिह्नक' का होना क्यों आवश्यक है? ऐसे ही एक चिह्नक का नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The circular plasmid is 4000 bp. The restriction sites are at BamHI (1000 bp), EcoRI (2000 bp), and EcoRI (3500 bp).
Double digestion with both enzymes will cleave the plasmid at all three sites.
The fragments obtained will be:
1. Fragment between BamHI (1000 bp) and EcoRI (2000 bp) = 2000 - 1000 = 1000 bp.
2. Fragment between EcoRI (2000 bp) and EcoRI (3500 bp) = 3500 - 2000 = 1500 bp.
3. Fragment between EcoRI (3500 bp) and BamHI (1000 bp, crossing the origin) = (4000 - 3500) + 1000 = 500 + 1000 = 1500 bp.
So, three fragments will be produced with sizes 1000 bp, 1500 bp, and 1500 bp.

(b) A selectable marker is essential to help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. It helps to differentiate host cells which have taken up the vector from those which have not. Example: Ampicillin resistance gene (ampR) or tetracycline resistance gene (tetR) in pBR322.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A molecular biologist wants to create multiple copies of a specific gene of interest isolated from a human cell and insert it into a bacterium like E. coli.
(a) Name and describe the steps of the technique they would use to amplify the gene.
(b) Explain the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why it is preferred over other DNA polymerases.
(c) What are 'primers' and what is their function in this technique?
एक आणविक जीवविज्ञानी एक मानव कोशिका से पृथक किए गए एक विशिष्ट जीन की कई प्रतियां बनाना चाहता है और इसे ई. कोलाई जैसे जीवाणु में डालना चाहता है।
(a) उस तकनीक के चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग वह जीन को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करेगा।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पोलीमरेज़ की भूमिका स्पष्ट कीजिए और इसे अन्य डीएनए पोलीमरेज़ की तुलना में क्यों पसंद किया जाता है।
(c) 'प्राइमर' क्या हैं और इस तकनीक में उनका क्या कार्य है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The technique is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). The steps are:
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to 94-96°C to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered to 50-65°C to allow the primers to bind to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised to 72°C, the optimal temperature for Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands, starting from the primers.
(b) Role of Taq polymerase: It is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes the new DNA strand using the original strand as a template and dNTPs. It is preferred because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, eliminating the need to add fresh polymerase in each cycle.
(c) Primers are short, chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA at the 3' end of the template strands. Their function is to provide a starting point (a free 3'-OH group) for the DNA polymerase to begin synthesis.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A forensic team found a very small sample of blood at a crime scene and needs to perform DNA fingerprinting. The amount of DNA is too low for analysis.
(a) Name and describe the three main steps of the technique they should use to amplify the DNA.
(b) What is the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why is it specifically used?
(c) List two other essential components required for this technique besides the DNA template and Taq polymerase.
एक फोरेंसिक टीम को अपराध स्थल पर रक्त का एक बहुत छोटा नमूना मिला और उसे डीएनए फिंगरप्रिंटिंग करने की आवश्यकता है। विश्लेषण के लिए डीएनए की मात्रा बहुत कम है।
(a) उस तकनीक के तीन मुख्य चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग उन्हें डीएनए को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करना चाहिए।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पॉलिमरेज़ की क्या भूमिका है और इसका विशेष रूप से उपयोग क्यों किया जाता है?
(c) डीएनए टेम्पलेट और टैक पॉलिमरेज़ के अलावा इस तकनीक के लिए आवश्यक दो अन्य आवश्यक घटकों को सूचीबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The technique is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). The three steps are:
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to a high temperature (around 94-96°C) to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered (around 50-65°C) to allow short, synthetic DNA primers to bind (anneal) to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised again (around 72°C), allowing Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands by adding nucleotides, starting from the primers.

(b) Role of Taq polymerase: Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA strands. It is used because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, which would denature most other polymerases. This stability eliminates the need to add fresh enzyme after each cycle.

(c) Other essential components: Two other essential components are primers (short synthetic oligonucleotides) and deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs - dATP, dGTP, dCTP, dTTP).
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A biotechnology company aims to produce a therapeutic protein on a large scale using recombinant E. coli. They have successfully created the recombinant cells in the lab.
(a) Name the vessel they should use for large-scale production. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a simple stirred-tank version of this vessel.
(b) Explain the function of the agitator system, oxygen delivery system, and foam control system in this vessel.
(c) What is 'downstream processing'? Mention any two processes involved in it.
एक जैव प्रौद्योगिकी कंपनी पुनर्योगज ई. कोलाई का उपयोग करके बड़े पैमाने पर एक चिकित्सीय प्रोटीन का उत्पादन करना चाहती है। उन्होंने प्रयोगशाला में सफलतापूर्वक पुनर्योगज कोशिकाएं बना ली हैं।
(a) बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए उन्हें जिस पात्र का उपयोग करना चाहिए, उसका नाम बताइए। इस पात्र के एक साधारण विलोडित-हौज संस्करण का एक सुनामांकित चित्र बनाइए।
(b) इस पात्र में प्रक्षोभक तंत्र, ऑक्सीजन वितरण तंत्र और फोम नियंत्रण तंत्र के कार्यों की व्याख्या कीजिए।
(c) 'अनुप्रवाह संसाधन' क्या है? इसमें शामिल किन्हीं दो प्रक्रियाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Vessel: Bioreactor.
A simple stirred-tank bioreactor diagram should be drawn, labelling the following: Agitator system, Acid/base for pH control, Steam for sterilization, Culture broth, Sterile air, Foam breaker, Motor, and Flat bladed impeller.

(b) Functions:
- Agitator system: Ensures uniform mixing of the culture medium and even distribution of nutrients and oxygen throughout the bioreactor.
- Oxygen delivery system: Supplies sterile air/oxygen to the culture, which is essential for the aerobic growth of the recombinant cells.
- Foam control system: Prevents foam formation, which can interfere with the process and lead to contamination.

(c) Downstream Processing: It is a series of processes that follow the biosynthetic stage (fermentation) to separate and purify the desired product from the culture medium. Two processes include: Separation (e.g., centrifugation or filtration) and Purification (e.g., chromatography).
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A biotechnology company is planning to produce a therapeutic protein on a large scale using recombinant E. coli.
(a) Name the equipment they would use for this large-scale production.
(b) Describe any four essential components or systems of this equipment that help in achieving the desired product yield. State the function of each.
(c) Why is continuous culture more productive than batch culture in this system?
एक जैव प्रौद्योगिकी कंपनी पुनर्योजी ई. कोलाई का उपयोग करके बड़े पैमाने पर एक चिकित्सीय प्रोटीन का उत्पादन करने की योजना बना रही है।
(a) इस बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए वे किस उपकरण का उपयोग करेंगे?
(b) वांछित उत्पाद प्राप्त करने में सहायता करने वाले इस उपकरण के किन्हीं चार आवश्यक घटकों या प्रणालियों का वर्णन करें। प्रत्येक का कार्य बताइए।
(c) इस प्रणाली में बैच संवर्धन की तुलना में सतत संवर्धन अधिक उत्पादक क्यों है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The equipment used is a Bioreactor (or Fermenter).

(b) Four essential components and their functions are:
1. Agitator System: Consists of blades or impellers for uniform mixing of the contents and ensuring that the microbial cells are evenly exposed to nutrients and oxygen.
2. Oxygen Delivery System: A sparger or tube that bubbles sterile air or oxygen through the culture medium to meet the aerobic requirements of the cells for growth and product formation.
3. Foam Control System: A sensor and addition port to add anti-foaming agents, as excessive foam can interfere with the process and contaminate the system.
4. Temperature Control System: A jacket or internal coils through which water circulates to maintain the optimal temperature for enzymatic activity and cell growth, removing excess heat generated during metabolism.
(Other valid points: pH control system, sampling ports)

(c) Continuous culture is more productive because it maintains the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase. This is achieved by continuously draining used medium and adding fresh medium, leading to a prolonged period of high growth rate and product formation, unlike batch culture where growth is limited by nutrient depletion and waste accumulation.
10

Biotechnology and its Applications

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between cloning vector and plasmid. Why is pBR322 considered a widely used cloning vector in genetic engineering?
क्लोनिंग वाहक और प्लास्मिड के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में pBR322 को व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाने वाला क्लोनिंग वाहक क्यों माना जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A cloning vector is a DNA molecule that can carry foreign genetic material into a host cell, where it can be replicated and/or expressed. A plasmid is a naturally occurring extrachromosomal, self-replicating DNA molecule found in bacteria, which can function as a cloning vector. pBR322 is widely used because it has multiple restriction sites, two selectable markers (ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes), and an origin of replication (ori) that controls copy number.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is 'bioreactor'? Explain its significance in large-scale production of recombinant proteins.
'बायोरिएक्टर' क्या है? पुनर्योगज प्रोटीन के बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन में इसके महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A bioreactor is a large vessel (typically 100-1000 litres) that provides optimal conditions for the growth of cells or microorganisms to produce desired products. (1 mark)
Its significance lies in providing controlled conditions like temperature, pH, aeration, and nutrient supply, which are crucial for obtaining large quantities of recombinant proteins from cell cultures. (2 marks)
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What are cloning vectors? Explain why plasmids are commonly used as cloning vectors in genetic engineering.
क्लोनिंग वाहक क्या होते हैं? आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में प्लास्मिड का उपयोग आमतौर पर क्लोनिंग वाहक के रूप में क्यों किया जाता है, समझाइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Cloning vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate independently in a host cell. (1 mark) Plasmids are commonly used because they are small, autonomously replicating circular DNA molecules, possess selectable markers, and have multiple cloning sites for insertion of foreign DNA. (2 marks for any two valid reasons)
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology. How do they facilitate the creation of recombinant DNA molecules?
पुनर्योगज डीएनए प्रौद्योगिकी में प्रतिबंधन एंजाइमों की भूमिका समझाइए। वे पुनर्योगज डीएनए अणुओं के निर्माण को कैसे सुगम बनाते हैं?
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Model Answer:
Restriction enzymes recognize specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA and cleave the phosphodiester backbone at or near these recognition sites. This creates sticky ends or blunt ends. Sticky ends are particularly useful because they can form hydrogen bonds with complementary sticky ends from other DNA fragments, allowing DNA ligase to join them, thus facilitating the formation of recombinant DNA.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between cloning vector and plasmid. Why are plasmids commonly used as vectors in genetic engineering?
क्लोनिंग वेक्टर और प्लास्मिड में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में प्लास्मिड का उपयोग आमतौर पर वेक्टर के रूप में क्यों किया जाता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A cloning vector is any DNA molecule that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate independently in a host cell. A plasmid is a naturally occurring extrachromosomal, self-replicating circular DNA molecule found in bacteria, which can act as a cloning vector. Plasmids are commonly used as vectors because they have an origin of replication, selectable markers, and multiple cloning sites, allowing easy insertion and selection of foreign DNA.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the role of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology. How do they facilitate the formation of recombinant DNA?
पुनर्योगज डीएनए प्रौद्योगिकी में प्रतिबंधन एंजाइमों की भूमिका समझाइए। वे पुनर्योगज डीएनए के निर्माण को कैसे सुगम बनाते हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific recognition sequences, creating 'sticky ends' or 'blunt ends'. These sticky ends are complementary to those cut by the same enzyme in another DNA molecule, allowing them to anneal and form recombinant DNA with the help of DNA ligase.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Why is the selectable marker gene an essential component of a cloning vector? Explain its utility.
एक क्लोनिंग वाहक का एक चयन योग्य मार्कर जीन एक आवश्यक घटक क्यों है? इसकी उपयोगिता समझाइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The selectable marker gene helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants from the transformed cells and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. For example, antibiotic resistance genes allow only cells containing the vector to grow in the presence of the antibiotic.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between exonucleases and endonucleases, providing one example for each. How do restriction endonucleases play a crucial role in genetic engineering?
एक्सोन्यूक्लिएज और एंडोन्यूक्लिएज के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए, प्रत्येक का एक उदाहरण दीजिए। आनुवंशिक इंजीनियरिंग में प्रतिबंध एंडोन्यूक्लिएज किस प्रकार महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA, e.g., Bal31. Endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA, e.g., EcoRI. Restriction endonucleases are crucial as they cut DNA at specific recognition sequences, creating 'sticky ends' that facilitate the insertion of foreign DNA into a vector.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between gene cloning and DNA amplification. What is the primary technique used for DNA amplification in vitro?
जीन क्लोनिंग और डीएनए प्रवर्धन के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। इन विट्रो में डीएनए प्रवर्धन के लिए उपयोग की जाने वाली प्राथमिक तकनीक क्या है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Gene cloning involves inserting a gene into a vector to produce multiple copies within a host organism. DNA amplification is the process of making many copies of a specific DNA segment in vitro. / The primary technique for DNA amplification in vitro is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is a cloning vector? List any two essential features that a plasmid must possess to be used as a cloning vector.
क्लोनिंग वाहक क्या है? क्लोनिंग वाहक के रूप में उपयोग किए जाने के लिए एक प्लास्मिड में कौन सी दो आवश्यक विशेषताएँ होनी चाहिए?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A cloning vector is a DNA molecule used as a vehicle to artificially carry foreign genetic material into another cell, where it can be replicated and/or expressed. / Essential features: Origin of replication (ori), selectable marker, and cloning sites. (Any two)

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A circular plasmid of 4000 bp has a single recognition site for the restriction enzyme BamHI and two sites for EcoRI. If you perform a double digestion using both enzymes, what will be the number and sizes of the DNA fragments you would obtain? Assume the sites are located as follows: BamHI at 1000 bp, EcoRI at 2000 bp and 3500 bp. Show your reasoning.
(b) Why is it essential for a cloning vector to have a 'selectable marker'? Name one such marker.
(a) 4000 bp के एक वृत्ताकार प्लास्मिड में प्रतिबंधन एंजाइम BamHI के लिए एक एकल पहचान स्थल और EcoRI के लिए दो स्थल हैं। यदि आप दोनों एंजाइमों का उपयोग करके एक दोहरा पाचन करते हैं, तो आपको प्राप्त होने वाले DNA खंडों की संख्या और आकार क्या होंगे? मान लें कि स्थल इस प्रकार स्थित हैं: BamHI 1000 bp पर, EcoRI 2000 bp और 3500 bp पर। अपने तर्क को स्पष्ट करें।
(b) एक क्लोनिंग वाहक में 'वरणात्मक चिह्नक' का होना क्यों आवश्यक है? ऐसे ही एक चिह्नक का नाम बताइए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The circular plasmid is 4000 bp. The restriction sites are at BamHI (1000 bp), EcoRI (2000 bp), and EcoRI (3500 bp).
Double digestion with both enzymes will cleave the plasmid at all three sites.
The fragments obtained will be:
1. Fragment between BamHI (1000 bp) and EcoRI (2000 bp) = 2000 - 1000 = 1000 bp.
2. Fragment between EcoRI (2000 bp) and EcoRI (3500 bp) = 3500 - 2000 = 1500 bp.
3. Fragment between EcoRI (3500 bp) and BamHI (1000 bp, crossing the origin) = (4000 - 3500) + 1000 = 500 + 1000 = 1500 bp.
So, three fragments will be produced with sizes 1000 bp, 1500 bp, and 1500 bp.

(b) A selectable marker is essential to help in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. It helps to differentiate host cells which have taken up the vector from those which have not. Example: Ampicillin resistance gene (ampR) or tetracycline resistance gene (tetR) in pBR322.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A molecular biologist wants to create multiple copies of a specific gene of interest isolated from a human cell and insert it into a bacterium like E. coli.
(a) Name and describe the steps of the technique they would use to amplify the gene.
(b) Explain the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why it is preferred over other DNA polymerases.
(c) What are 'primers' and what is their function in this technique?
एक आणविक जीवविज्ञानी एक मानव कोशिका से पृथक किए गए एक विशिष्ट जीन की कई प्रतियां बनाना चाहता है और इसे ई. कोलाई जैसे जीवाणु में डालना चाहता है।
(a) उस तकनीक के चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग वह जीन को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करेगा।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पोलीमरेज़ की भूमिका स्पष्ट कीजिए और इसे अन्य डीएनए पोलीमरेज़ की तुलना में क्यों पसंद किया जाता है।
(c) 'प्राइमर' क्या हैं और इस तकनीक में उनका क्या कार्य है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The technique is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). The steps are:
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to 94-96°C to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered to 50-65°C to allow the primers to bind to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised to 72°C, the optimal temperature for Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands, starting from the primers.
(b) Role of Taq polymerase: It is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes the new DNA strand using the original strand as a template and dNTPs. It is preferred because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, eliminating the need to add fresh polymerase in each cycle.
(c) Primers are short, chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA at the 3' end of the template strands. Their function is to provide a starting point (a free 3'-OH group) for the DNA polymerase to begin synthesis.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A forensic team found a very small sample of blood at a crime scene and needs to perform DNA fingerprinting. The amount of DNA is too low for analysis.
(a) Name and describe the three main steps of the technique they should use to amplify the DNA.
(b) What is the role of Taq polymerase in this process and why is it specifically used?
(c) List two other essential components required for this technique besides the DNA template and Taq polymerase.
एक फोरेंसिक टीम को अपराध स्थल पर रक्त का एक बहुत छोटा नमूना मिला और उसे डीएनए फिंगरप्रिंटिंग करने की आवश्यकता है। विश्लेषण के लिए डीएनए की मात्रा बहुत कम है।
(a) उस तकनीक के तीन मुख्य चरणों का नाम बताइए और उनका वर्णन कीजिए जिसका उपयोग उन्हें डीएनए को प्रवर्धित करने के लिए करना चाहिए।
(b) इस प्रक्रिया में टैक पॉलिमरेज़ की क्या भूमिका है और इसका विशेष रूप से उपयोग क्यों किया जाता है?
(c) डीएनए टेम्पलेट और टैक पॉलिमरेज़ के अलावा इस तकनीक के लिए आवश्यक दो अन्य आवश्यक घटकों को सूचीबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The technique is Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). The three steps are:
1. Denaturation: The double-stranded DNA is heated to a high temperature (around 94-96°C) to separate the two strands.
2. Annealing: The temperature is lowered (around 50-65°C) to allow short, synthetic DNA primers to bind (anneal) to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA templates.
3. Extension: The temperature is raised again (around 72°C), allowing Taq polymerase to synthesize new DNA strands by adding nucleotides, starting from the primers.

(b) Role of Taq polymerase: Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase that synthesizes new DNA strands. It is used because it can withstand the high temperatures of the denaturation step, which would denature most other polymerases. This stability eliminates the need to add fresh enzyme after each cycle.

(c) Other essential components: Two other essential components are primers (short synthetic oligonucleotides) and deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs - dATP, dGTP, dCTP, dTTP).
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A biotechnology company aims to produce a therapeutic protein on a large scale using recombinant E. coli. They have successfully created the recombinant cells in the lab.
(a) Name the vessel they should use for large-scale production. Draw a well-labelled diagram of a simple stirred-tank version of this vessel.
(b) Explain the function of the agitator system, oxygen delivery system, and foam control system in this vessel.
(c) What is 'downstream processing'? Mention any two processes involved in it.
एक जैव प्रौद्योगिकी कंपनी पुनर्योगज ई. कोलाई का उपयोग करके बड़े पैमाने पर एक चिकित्सीय प्रोटीन का उत्पादन करना चाहती है। उन्होंने प्रयोगशाला में सफलतापूर्वक पुनर्योगज कोशिकाएं बना ली हैं।
(a) बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए उन्हें जिस पात्र का उपयोग करना चाहिए, उसका नाम बताइए। इस पात्र के एक साधारण विलोडित-हौज संस्करण का एक सुनामांकित चित्र बनाइए।
(b) इस पात्र में प्रक्षोभक तंत्र, ऑक्सीजन वितरण तंत्र और फोम नियंत्रण तंत्र के कार्यों की व्याख्या कीजिए।
(c) 'अनुप्रवाह संसाधन' क्या है? इसमें शामिल किन्हीं दो प्रक्रियाओं का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Vessel: Bioreactor.
A simple stirred-tank bioreactor diagram should be drawn, labelling the following: Agitator system, Acid/base for pH control, Steam for sterilization, Culture broth, Sterile air, Foam breaker, Motor, and Flat bladed impeller.

(b) Functions:
- Agitator system: Ensures uniform mixing of the culture medium and even distribution of nutrients and oxygen throughout the bioreactor.
- Oxygen delivery system: Supplies sterile air/oxygen to the culture, which is essential for the aerobic growth of the recombinant cells.
- Foam control system: Prevents foam formation, which can interfere with the process and lead to contamination.

(c) Downstream Processing: It is a series of processes that follow the biosynthetic stage (fermentation) to separate and purify the desired product from the culture medium. Two processes include: Separation (e.g., centrifugation or filtration) and Purification (e.g., chromatography).
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A biotechnology company is planning to produce a therapeutic protein on a large scale using recombinant E. coli.
(a) Name the equipment they would use for this large-scale production.
(b) Describe any four essential components or systems of this equipment that help in achieving the desired product yield. State the function of each.
(c) Why is continuous culture more productive than batch culture in this system?
एक जैव प्रौद्योगिकी कंपनी पुनर्योजी ई. कोलाई का उपयोग करके बड़े पैमाने पर एक चिकित्सीय प्रोटीन का उत्पादन करने की योजना बना रही है।
(a) इस बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन के लिए वे किस उपकरण का उपयोग करेंगे?
(b) वांछित उत्पाद प्राप्त करने में सहायता करने वाले इस उपकरण के किन्हीं चार आवश्यक घटकों या प्रणालियों का वर्णन करें। प्रत्येक का कार्य बताइए।
(c) इस प्रणाली में बैच संवर्धन की तुलना में सतत संवर्धन अधिक उत्पादक क्यों है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The equipment used is a Bioreactor (or Fermenter).

(b) Four essential components and their functions are:
1. Agitator System: Consists of blades or impellers for uniform mixing of the contents and ensuring that the microbial cells are evenly exposed to nutrients and oxygen.
2. Oxygen Delivery System: A sparger or tube that bubbles sterile air or oxygen through the culture medium to meet the aerobic requirements of the cells for growth and product formation.
3. Foam Control System: A sensor and addition port to add anti-foaming agents, as excessive foam can interfere with the process and contaminate the system.
4. Temperature Control System: A jacket or internal coils through which water circulates to maintain the optimal temperature for enzymatic activity and cell growth, removing excess heat generated during metabolism.
(Other valid points: pH control system, sampling ports)

(c) Continuous culture is more productive because it maintains the cells in their physiologically most active log/exponential phase. This is achieved by continuously draining used medium and adding fresh medium, leading to a prolonged period of high growth rate and product formation, unlike batch culture where growth is limited by nutrient depletion and waste accumulation.
11

Organisms and Populations

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain why sexual reproduction is considered to be more advantageous than asexual reproduction, even though it is a more complex and slower process.
समझाइए कि लैंगिक प्रजनन को अलैंगिक प्रजनन की तुलना में अधिक फायदेमंद क्यों माना जाता है, भले ही यह एक अधिक जटिल और धीमी प्रक्रिया है।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Sexual reproduction leads to genetic variation due to recombination and crossing over during meiosis, and the fusion of gametes from two different parents. This variation is crucial for adaptation to changing environments and for evolution. Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical offspring (clones), which limits adaptability.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between isogametes and heterogametes with suitable examples.
उपयुक्त उदाहरणों के साथ समयुग्मक और विषमयुग्मक के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Isogametes are gametes that are morphologically similar and indistinguishable, e.g., in Cladophora (an alga). Heterogametes are gametes that are morphologically distinct, typically with a larger, non-motile female gamete (egg/ovum) and a smaller, motile male gamete (sperm/antherozoid), e.g., in humans or Fucus (an alga).
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
In some organisms, events like fertilization and embryo development occur outside the body of the organism, while in others, they occur inside. Explain the terms 'external fertilization' and 'internal fertilization' and provide one advantage of internal fertilization.
कुछ जीवों में, निषेचन और भ्रूण विकास जैसी घटनाएँ जीव के शरीर के बाहर होती हैं, जबकि अन्य में, वे अंदर होती हैं। 'बाह्य निषेचन' और 'आंतरिक निषेचन' शब्दों की व्याख्या कीजिए और आंतरिक निषेचन का एक लाभ बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
External fertilization is the fusion of male and female gametes outside the body of the female, usually in an aquatic medium (e.g., most aquatic animals, algae). Internal fertilization is the fusion of male and female gametes inside the body of the female (e.g., reptiles, birds, mammals, most plants). An advantage of internal fertilization is increased chances of survival of the zygote/embryo due to protection from predators and environmental hazards.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Vegetative propagation is a common method of asexual reproduction in plants. Describe two different natural methods of vegetative propagation in plants, giving an example for each.
कायिक प्रवर्धन पौधों में अलैंगिक प्रजनन की एक सामान्य विधि है। पौधों में कायिक प्रवर्धन की दो विभिन्न प्राकृतिक विधियों का वर्णन कीजिए, प्रत्येक का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Two natural methods of vegetative propagation are: 1. By stems: Underground stems like rhizomes (e.g., ginger) and tubers (e.g., potato) have buds that can develop into new plants. 2. By leaves: Leaves of some plants like Bryophyllum have adventitious buds in their notches which detach and grow into new plants. (Other valid methods like roots, bulbil can also be accepted).
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Organisms exhibit different life spans. What is the significance of the life span of an organism, and how does it relate to its reproductive phase?
जीव विभिन्न जीवन अवधियाँ प्रदर्शित करते हैं। किसी जीव की जीवन अवधि का क्या महत्व है, और यह उसके प्रजनन चरण से कैसे संबंधित है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Life span is the period from birth to the natural death of an organism. It is a characteristic feature of an organism but not necessarily correlated with its size. The reproductive phase is a crucial part of the life span, as it is during this phase that an organism can produce offspring, ensuring the continuation of its species. The duration of the reproductive phase varies greatly among organisms and is often linked to their overall life span.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
A gardener observes that his rose plants, propagated through stem cuttings, consistently produce flowers of the same color and fragrance as the parent plant. Explain why this method ensures genetic uniformity, unlike propagation through seeds.
एक माली देखता है कि उसके गुलाब के पौधे, जिन्हें तने की कटिंग से उगाया गया है, लगातार मूल पौधे के समान रंग और सुगंध वाले फूल पैदा करते हैं। समझाइए कि यह विधि आनुवंशिक एकरूपता कैसे सुनिश्चित करती है, जबकि बीज द्वारा प्रवर्धन ऐसा नहीं करता।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Stem cuttings involve asexual reproduction, where offspring are genetically identical to the single parent (clones). Seeds result from sexual reproduction, involving fusion of gametes from two parents, leading to genetic variation due to recombination and segregation.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
In many sexually reproducing organisms, there is a distinct juvenile phase followed by a reproductive phase and then a senescent phase. Describe the key biological events or changes that characterize the transition from the juvenile phase to the reproductive phase in animals.
कई लैंगिक रूप से प्रजनन करने वाले जीवों में, एक विशिष्ट किशोरावस्था के बाद एक प्रजनन अवस्था और फिर एक जीर्णता अवस्था होती है। जानवरों में किशोरावस्था से प्रजनन अवस्था में संक्रमण की विशेषता वाले प्रमुख जैविक घटनाओं या परिवर्तनों का वर्णन कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The transition from juvenile to reproductive phase in animals is marked by hormonal changes that lead to sexual maturation. This includes the development of secondary sexual characteristics, maturation of gonads (testes/ovaries), and the ability to produce functional gametes.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Give two reasons why external fertilization, common in aquatic environments, is considered to have a higher risk of gamete wastage compared to internal fertilization.
दो कारण बताइए कि क्यों बाहरी निषेचन, जो जलीय वातावरण में आम है, को आंतरिक निषेचन की तुलना में युग्मक बर्बादी का अधिक जोखिम वाला माना जाता है।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
1. Gametes released into the water can be dispersed by currents, reducing the chances of successful fusion. 2. Gametes are vulnerable to predation and environmental fluctuations (e.g., pH, temperature changes), leading to their destruction before fertilization.
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between asexual and sexual reproduction based on the number of parents involved and the genetic similarity of offspring. Give one example for each type of reproduction.
अलैंगिक और लैंगिक प्रजनन में शामिल माता-पिता की संख्या और संतति की आनुवंशिक समानता के आधार पर अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। प्रत्येक प्रकार के प्रजनन का एक-एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Asexual reproduction involves a single parent, producing genetically identical offspring (clones). Example: Budding in Hydra. Sexual reproduction involves two parents (usually), producing genetically dissimilar offspring due to fusion of gametes. Example: Human reproduction.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
In certain organisms like sponges and Hydra, fragmentation and budding are common modes of reproduction. Differentiate between these two processes based on the involvement of parent body parts and the developmental origin of the new individual.
कुछ जीवों जैसे स्पंज और हाइड्रा में, विखंडन और मुकुलन प्रजनन के सामान्य तरीके हैं। जनक शरीर के अंगों की भागीदारी और नए व्यक्ति के विकासात्मक मूल के आधार पर इन दोनों प्रक्रियाओं में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Fragmentation: Parent body breaks into distinct pieces, each piece develops into a new individual. Budding: A small outgrowth (bud) forms on the parent body, detaches, and develops into a new individual. Fragmentation involves division of the whole body, while budding involves a localized outgrowth.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A farmer wants to propagate banana and ginger plants on his farm. As a biology student, explain the most appropriate method of asexual reproduction for each plant that he should use. Describe the process and mention the specific vegetative propagules involved in both cases. Why is this method advantageous for the farmer?
एक किसान अपने खेत में केले और अदरक के पौधों का प्रवर्धन करना चाहता है। एक जीव विज्ञान के छात्र के रूप में, प्रत्येक पौधे के लिए अलैंगिक जनन की सबसे उपयुक्त विधि की व्याख्या करें जिसका उसे उपयोग करना चाहिए। प्रक्रिया का वर्णन करें और दोनों मामलों में शामिल विशिष्ट कायिक प्रवर्धों का उल्लेख करें। यह विधि किसान के लिए क्यों लाभप्रद है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
The farmer should use vegetative propagation for both plants.

1. **For Banana:**
* **Method:** Propagation through Rhizome.
* **Propagule:** The vegetative propagule is the rhizome. Small sections of the underground stem (rhizome), each containing at least one bud ('eye'), are cut and planted.
* **Process:** These rhizome pieces, when planted in moist soil, develop roots and shoots from the buds, growing into new, genetically identical banana plants.

2. **For Ginger:**
* **Method:** Propagation through Rhizome.
* **Propagule:** The vegetative propagule is the rhizome.
* **Process:** Ginger also has an underground, modified stem called a rhizome. The rhizome has distinct nodes and internodes. Small pieces of the rhizome, each with a few buds, are planted. These buds sprout to form new plants.

**Advantages for the farmer:**
* **Genetic Uniformity:** All new plants are genetically identical to the parent, ensuring desirable traits like fruit quality and yield are maintained.
* **Faster Growth:** Plants grown from vegetative propagules mature and bear fruit much earlier than those grown from seeds.
* **Propagation of Seedless Varieties:** This is the only method to propagate plants like bananas that do not produce viable seeds.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A farmer wants to propagate plants like potato, ginger, and water hyacinth in his field quickly and efficiently, while ensuring the new plants are identical to the parent. Describe the specific natural vegetative propagules he should use for each of these three plants. Also, list two major advantages for the farmer in using vegetative propagation methods over growing plants from seeds.
एक किसान अपने खेत में आलू, अदरक, और जलकुंभी जैसे पौधों का तेजी से और कुशलता से प्रवर्धन करना चाहता है, साथ ही यह सुनिश्चित करना चाहता है कि नए पौधे जनक पौधे के समान हों। इन तीनों पौधों में से प्रत्येक के लिए उसे किन विशिष्ट प्राकृतिक कायिक प्रवर्धों का उपयोग करना चाहिए, इसका वर्णन कीजिए। साथ ही, बीजों से पौधे उगाने की तुलना में कायिक प्रवर्धन विधियों का उपयोग करने के दो प्रमुख लाभों को सूचीबद्ध कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
The farmer should use the following vegetative propagules:
1. **Potato:** Eyes of the tuber. The 'eyes' are axillary buds that can sprout to form new plants.
2. **Ginger:** Rhizome. The rhizome is an underground modified stem with nodes and internodes. Buds at the nodes can give rise to new plants.
3. **Water Hyacinth:** Offset. The offset is a lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots, capable of forming a new plant.

Two major advantages for the farmer are:
* **Genetic Uniformity (Clones):** It is a method of producing genetically identical individuals (clones). This ensures that desirable traits like high yield, disease resistance, or specific fruit quality of the parent plant are preserved.
* **Faster Propagation:** Plants raised by vegetative propagation reach maturity and start bearing flowers and fruits much earlier than those produced from seeds. This leads to a quicker harvest.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A farmer wants to propagate banana and ginger plants on a commercial scale. Which vegetative propagule would you suggest for each? Justify your choice with a reason.
(b) Explain why vegetative propagation is considered a type of asexual reproduction. List two advantages and one disadvantage of this method for farmers.
(a) एक किसान व्यावसायिक स्तर पर केले और अदरक के पौधों का प्रवर्धन करना चाहता है। आप प्रत्येक के लिए कौन-से कायिक प्रवर्ध का सुझाव देंगे? कारण सहित अपने चयन का औचित्य सिद्ध करें।
(b) कायिक प्रवर्धन को अलैंगिक जनन का एक प्रकार क्यों माना जाता है, व्याख्या कीजिए। किसानों के लिए इस विधि के दो लाभ और एक हानि सूचीबद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a)
For Banana: The suggested vegetative propagule is the Rhizome (or suckers arising from it). Justification: The underground stem (rhizome) of banana possesses nodes and buds which can give rise to new plants. This ensures rapid and uniform crop production.
For Ginger: The suggested vegetative propagule is the Rhizome. Justification: Ginger has a modified underground stem called a rhizome which stores food and has buds. These buds can sprout to form new plants, making it an effective method for propagation.

(b)
Vegetative propagation is considered a type of asexual reproduction because it involves the formation of new individuals from a single parent, without the formation and fusion of gametes. The offspring are genetically identical to the parent plant.
Advantages for farmers:
1. It is a faster, easier, and cheaper method of propagation for many plants.
2. It helps in preserving the parental characters (like superior fruit quality, disease resistance) for successive generations.
Disadvantages for farmers:
1. Since there is no genetic variation, the entire crop is susceptible to the same diseases and pests. A single disease can wipe out the whole population.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) What is embryogenesis? Describe the major events that occur during this process.
(b) Oviparous animals like reptiles and birds lay eggs in a safe place, whereas viviparous animals like mammals give birth to young ones. Analyse this difference and explain how it provides better embryonic care and protection in viviparous animals.
(a) भ्रूणोद्भव क्या है? इस प्रक्रिया के दौरान होने वाली प्रमुख घटनाओं का वर्णन करें।
(b) सरीसृप और पक्षियों जैसे अंडप्रजक जंतु एक सुरक्षित स्थान पर अंडे देते हैं, जबकि स्तनधारियों जैसे सजीवप्रजक जंतु शिशुओं को जन्म देते हैं। इस अंतर का विश्लेषण करें और व्याख्या करें कि यह सजीवप्रजक जंतुओं में बेहतर भ्रूणीय देखभाल और सुरक्षा कैसे प्रदान करता है।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Embryogenesis is the process of development of an embryo from the zygote. During embryogenesis, the zygote undergoes two major events:
1. Cell Division (Mitosis): The zygote divides repeatedly by mitosis to increase the number of cells in the developing embryo. This is also called cleavage.
2. Cell Differentiation: The cells formed through division undergo differentiation to form specialized tissues and organs, which ultimately organize to form a complete organism.

(b) Analysis of difference:
In oviparous animals, the development of the zygote takes place outside the female's body, within a calcareous shell. The embryo is vulnerable to environmental threats and predators.
In viviparous animals, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism.
Better embryonic care and protection: Viviparity provides better care and protection because the developing embryo remains safe inside the mother's body, receiving continuous nourishment and protection from predators and harsh environmental conditions. After a certain stage of growth, the young ones are delivered out of the mother's body. Because of this proper embryonic care and protection, the chances of survival of young ones are greater in viviparous organisms.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) A potato tuber, a piece of ginger, a Bryophyllum leaf, and a piece of water hyacinth are placed in a pot with soil. Which of these will sprout and form new plants? Give a reason for your answer.
(b) Name the vegetative propagules in the above-mentioned plants.
(c) Why is vegetative propagation also considered a type of asexual reproduction?
(a) एक आलू कंद, अदरक का एक टुकड़ा, ब्रायोफिलम की पत्ती, और जलकुंभी का एक टुकड़ा मिट्टी के साथ एक गमले में रखे जाते हैं। इनमें से कौन अंकुरित होकर नए पौधे बनाएंगे? अपने उत्तर का कारण बताएं।
(b) उपरोक्त उल्लिखित पौधों में कायिक प्रवर्धों के नाम बताइए।
(c) कायिक प्रवर्धन को अलैंगिक जनन का एक प्रकार क्यों माना जाता है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) All of them will sprout and form new plants. This is because all these parts are modified vegetative parts of the plant that contain nodes with adventitious buds. Under favorable conditions (like moist soil), these buds can grow into new plants.

(b) The vegetative propagules are:
- Potato tuber: Eyes (axillary buds)
- Ginger: Rhizome
- Bryophyllum leaf: Leaf buds (adventitious buds on leaf margins)
- Water hyacinth: Offset

(c) Vegetative propagation is considered a type of asexual reproduction because it involves only a single parent, and the offspring produced are genetically identical to the parent (clones). There is no formation or fusion of gametes involved.
12

Ecosystem

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the process of decomposition. What are the major factors that affect the rate of decomposition?
अपघटन की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन कीजिए। अपघटन की दर को प्रभावित करने वाले प्रमुख कारक कौन से हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Decomposition is the process by which decomposers break down complex organic matter into simpler inorganic substances. The major factors affecting the rate of decomposition are chemical composition of detritus (lignin and chitin slow it down, nitrogen and water-soluble sugars speed it up), temperature (optimal for microbial activity), and soil moisture and aeration (warm and moist conditions favor decomposition).
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the process of ecological succession. Give one example of secondary succession.
पारिस्थितिक अनुक्रमण की प्रक्रिया का वर्णन कीजिए। द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Ecological succession is the gradual and predictable change in the species composition of an area over time. It involves a series of communities replacing one another until a stable climax community is established. An example of secondary succession is the recolonization of a forest area after it has been cleared by a fire or logging, or an abandoned farm land.
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain how an ecological pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem can be inverted. Justify your answer with suitable reasoning.
स्पष्ट कीजिए कि तालाब पारिस्थितिक तंत्र में जीवभार का पारिस्थितिक पिरामिड किस प्रकार उल्टा हो सकता है। उपयुक्त कारण सहित अपने उत्तर की पुष्टि कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
In a pond ecosystem, the biomass of phytoplankton (producers) is less than the biomass of zooplankton (primary consumers) at any given time. Zooplankton have a longer lifespan and accumulate more biomass compared to the rapidly reproducing and short-lived phytoplankton. This leads to an inverted pyramid of biomass.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between food chain and food web. Explain why food web is considered more stable than a food chain.
खाद्य श्रृंखला और खाद्य जाल में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। समझाइए कि खाद्य जाल को खाद्य श्रृंखला से अधिक स्थिर क्यों माना जाता है।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Food chain is a linear sequence of organisms where nutrients and energy are transferred from one organism to another, while a food web consists of multiple interconnected food chains. A food web is more stable because if one food source is eliminated, organisms have alternative food sources, ensuring ecosystem stability.
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of ecological pyramids. Why is the pyramid of energy always upright?
पारिस्थितिक पिरामिड की अवधारणा को समझाइए। ऊर्जा का पिरामिड हमेशा सीधा क्यों होता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Ecological pyramids are graphical representations showing the relationship between different trophic levels in an ecosystem, in terms of number, biomass, or energy. The pyramid of energy is always upright because during energy transfer from one trophic level to the next, a significant amount of energy is lost as heat (following the 10% law), so less energy is available at successive trophic levels.
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of an inverted pyramid of biomass in an ecosystem. Give an example where such a pyramid can be observed.
किसी पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में बायोमास के उल्टे पिरामिड की अवधारणा को समझाइए। एक उदाहरण दीजिए जहाँ ऐसा पिरामिड देखा जा सकता है।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
An inverted pyramid of biomass occurs when the biomass of the producers (at the base) is less than the biomass of the primary consumers (herbivores) or subsequent trophic levels. This is typically observed in aquatic ecosystems, such as a pond or ocean, where the producers (phytoplankton) have a very short lifespan and high turnover rate, supporting a larger biomass of zooplankton.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Distinguish between primary and secondary succession. Provide one example for each type.
प्राथमिक और द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। प्रत्येक प्रकार का एक-एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Primary succession occurs on newly formed or exposed areas where no life existed before (e.g., bare rock, newly cooled lava). Secondary succession begins in areas where a community has been removed but the soil or substrate remains intact (e.g., abandoned farm land, after a forest fire).
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the 10 percent law of energy transfer in an ecosystem. How does this law limit the number of trophic levels in an ecosystem?
एक पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में ऊर्जा स्थानांतरण के 10 प्रतिशत नियम की व्याख्या कीजिए। यह नियम एक पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में पोषण स्तरों की संख्या को कैसे सीमित करता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The 10 percent law states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level; the remaining 90% is lost as heat or used for metabolic activities. This law limits the number of trophic levels because with each transfer, the available energy decreases significantly, making it insufficient to support a large population at higher trophic levels (typically limiting to 4-5 levels).
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Describe the 10 percent law of energy flow in an ecosystem. How does this law impact the biomass at different trophic levels?
किसी पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में ऊर्जा प्रवाह के 10 प्रतिशत नियम का वर्णन कीजिए। यह नियम विभिन्न पोषण स्तरों पर बायोमास को कैसे प्रभावित करता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The 10 percent law states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level; the remaining 90% is lost as heat or used for metabolic activities. This law leads to a decrease in biomass at successive trophic levels, resulting in an upright pyramid of biomass in most ecosystems.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the process of decomposition in an ecosystem. List any two factors that affect the rate of decomposition.
किसी पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में अपघटन की प्रक्रिया को समझाइए। अपघटन की दर को प्रभावित करने वाले किन्हीं दो कारकों को सूचीबद्ध कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Decomposition is the process by which decomposers break down complex organic matter into simpler inorganic substances like CO2, water, and nutrients. It involves fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, and mineralization. Factors affecting decomposition include chemical composition of detritus (e.g., lignin and chitin slow it down, nitrogen and water-soluble sugars speed it up) and climatic factors (e.g., temperature and soil moisture).

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Why is the pyramid of energy always upright? Explain with a reason.
(b) Construct a pyramid of biomass for a large tree ecosystem. Is it upright or inverted? Justify your answer.
(c) How does the pyramid of biomass for an aquatic ecosystem (like a pond) differ from that of a terrestrial ecosystem?
(क) ऊर्जा का पिरामिड सदैव सीधा क्यों होता है? कारण सहित व्याख्या कीजिए।
(ख) एक बड़े वृक्ष के पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के लिए जीवभार का पिरामिड बनाइए। यह सीधा है या उलटा? अपने उत्तर की पुष्टि कीजिए।
(ग) एक जलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र (जैसे तालाब) के लिए जीवभार का पिरामिड एक स्थलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र से किस प्रकार भिन्न होता है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The pyramid of energy is always upright because energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional. At each successive trophic level, there is a significant loss of energy (about 90%) as heat, according to the 10% law. Thus, the energy available at the producer level is always maximum, and it decreases at each subsequent trophic level (primary consumer, secondary consumer, etc.).

(b) The pyramid of biomass in a large tree ecosystem is inverted (spindle-shaped).
Justification: A single large tree (producer) has a very large biomass. It supports a large number of herbivorous birds (primary consumers), which have a smaller total biomass. These birds, in turn, support a very small number of parasites or predators (secondary consumers), which have an even smaller biomass. Thus, the producer biomass is large, consumer biomass is less, and top consumer biomass is least.

(c) In a terrestrial ecosystem (e.g., grassland), the pyramid of biomass is typically upright because the total biomass of producers is greater than that of primary consumers, which is greater than that of secondary consumers. However, in an aquatic ecosystem (e.g., a pond), the pyramid of biomass is often inverted. This is because the producers are phytoplanktons, which have a very short life span and a small standing crop biomass at any given time. They are consumed rapidly by zooplanktons (primary consumers), which have a larger biomass.
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A farmer observes that the productivity of his wheat crop has declined over the years despite using sufficient fertilizers. A soil scientist suggests that the issue might be related to the decomposition process in his field.
(a) Name the key steps involved in the process of decomposition.
(b) Explain how temperature and soil moisture can affect the rate of decomposition.
(c) How does the chemical composition of detritus, specifically the presence of lignin and chitin versus nitrogen and water-soluble substances, influence the decomposition rate?
एक किसान देखता है कि पर्याप्त उर्वरकों का उपयोग करने के बावजूद वर्षों से उसकी गेहूं की फसल की उत्पादकता में गिरावट आई है। एक मृदा वैज्ञानिक का सुझाव है कि यह मुद्दा उसके खेत में अपघटन प्रक्रिया से संबंधित हो सकता है।
(क) अपघटन की प्रक्रिया में शामिल प्रमुख चरणों के नाम बताइए।
(ख) तापमान और मृदा की नमी अपघटन की दर को कैसे प्रभावित कर सकती है? व्याख्या कीजिए।
(ग) अपरद की रासायनिक संरचना, विशेष रूप से लिग्निन और काइटिन बनाम नाइट्रोजन और जल-विलेय पदार्थों की उपस्थिति, अपघटन दर को कैसे प्रभावित करती है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The key steps in decomposition are: Fragmentation, Leaching, and Catabolism. Humification and Mineralisation occur simultaneously during decomposition.

(b) Temperature and soil moisture are crucial climatic factors that regulate decomposition. The rate of decomposition is higher in warm and moist environments. Low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition, resulting in the build-up of organic materials. For example, decomposition is faster in tropical rainforests compared to temperate or arctic regions.

(c) The rate of decomposition is largely controlled by the chemical composition of detritus. Decomposition is slower if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin, as these are complex polymers that are difficult for microbes to break down. Conversely, decomposition is quicker if the detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars, as these provide an easily accessible source of energy and nutrients for the decomposers.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Differentiate between primary and secondary succession, providing one example for each.
(b) Explain the changes that occur in the characteristics of an ecosystem during succession, specifically focusing on species diversity, biomass, and humus content.
(c) Why is secondary succession faster than primary succession? Give two reasons.
(क) प्राथमिक और द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण के बीच एक-एक उदाहरण देते हुए अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ख) अनुक्रमण के दौरान एक पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र की विशेषताओं में होने वाले परिवर्तनों की व्याख्या कीजिए, विशेष रूप से प्रजातियों की विविधता, जीवभार और ह्यूमस की मात्रा पर ध्यान केंद्रित करते हुए।
(ग) द्वितीयक अनुक्रमण प्राथमिक अनुक्रमण की तुलना में तेज क्यों होता है? दो कारण दीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Primary Succession: It begins in an area where no living organisms ever existed, e.g., bare rock, cooled lava.
Secondary Succession: It begins in an area that has lost all the living organisms that existed there, but where soil or sediment is present, e.g., abandoned farmland, burned or cut forests.

(b) During succession:
- Species diversity: Increases as succession proceeds. The number of species and organisms increases.
- Biomass: The total amount of living organic matter (biomass) increases.
- Humus content: Decomposers also increase, leading to an increase in the humus content of the soil.

(c) Secondary succession is faster than primary succession for two main reasons:
1. Presence of Soil: Secondary succession starts on well-developed soil or sediment. This soil already contains nutrients and organic matter, eliminating the long process of soil formation which is a necessary first step in primary succession.
2. Presence of Propagules: Some seeds, spores, roots, or other propagules of previous organisms may remain in the soil, allowing for quicker re-colonization compared to the arrival of pioneer species on a sterile surface.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Construct a pyramid of biomass for a marine ecosystem. Why is this pyramid inverted?
(b) List any three limitations of ecological pyramids.
(a) एक समुद्री पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के लिए जीवभार का पिरामिड बनाइए। यह पिरामिड उल्टा क्यों होता है?
(b) पारिस्थितिक पिरामिड की कोई तीन सीमाएँ सूचीबद्ध कीजिए।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) In a marine ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is inverted. The biomass of producers (phytoplankton) at any given time is much lower than the biomass of the primary consumers (zooplankton) that feed on them. This happens because phytoplankton have a very short life span and a high turnover rate; they are consumed rapidly by zooplankton. The zooplankton, in turn, are consumed by small fish, and so on, with biomass increasing at each successive trophic level.

Pyramid Structure:
Base: Phytoplankton (Producers) - Smallest biomass
Above Base: Zooplankton (Primary Consumers)
Above that: Small Fish (Secondary Consumers)
Top: Large Fish (Tertiary Consumers) - Largest biomass

(b) Three limitations of ecological pyramids are:
1. They do not account for the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels (e.g., omnivores).
2. They assume a simple food chain, which almost never exists in nature; they do not accommodate a food web.
3. Decomposers (saprophytes) are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in the ecosystem.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A farmer in a phosphorus-deficient region wants to improve crop yield. Explain the key steps of the natural phosphorus cycle that make this nutrient available to plants. Also, suggest two ways in which human activities, including agricultural practices, can disrupt this cycle.
एक फॉस्फोरस-रहित क्षेत्र का किसान अपनी फसल की उपज में सुधार करना चाहता है। प्राकृतिक फॉस्फोरस चक्र के उन प्रमुख चरणों की व्याख्या करें जो इस पोषक तत्व को पौधों के लिए उपलब्ध कराते हैं। साथ ही, ऐसे दो तरीके सुझाएँ जिनसे कृषि पद्धतियों सहित मानवीय गतिविधियाँ इस चक्र को बाधित कर सकती हैं।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
The key steps of the phosphorus cycle that make it available to plants are:
1. **Weathering of Rocks:** The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock, which contains phosphorus in the form of phosphates. Through weathering and erosion, these phosphates are dissolved in soil solution and absorbed by the roots of plants.
2. **Decomposition:** When organisms die, decomposers like bacteria and fungi break down the organic matter, returning phosphates to the soil (mineralization), making it available for producers again.

Two ways human activities disrupt the phosphorus cycle:
1. **Use of Fertilizers:** The extensive use of phosphate fertilizers in agriculture significantly alters the natural cycle. The excess phosphorus runs off from fields into water bodies, causing eutrophication (algal blooms) which depletes oxygen and harms aquatic life.
2. **Mining:** Humans mine phosphate rock to produce fertilizers. This depletes the natural geological reserves of phosphorus, which are non-renewable on a human timescale.
13

Biodiversity and Conservation

Part A: Short Answer Questions (2–3 Marks Each)

Q1 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is meant by 'habitat loss and fragmentation'? How does it contribute to biodiversity loss?
'आवास हानि और विखंडन' का क्या अर्थ है? यह जैव विविधता के नुकसान में कैसे योगदान देता है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Habitat loss refers to the destruction or degradation of natural habitats, while fragmentation is the breaking up of large, continuous habitats into smaller, isolated patches. This reduces the area available for species, restricts gene flow, increases edge effects, and makes populations more vulnerable to extinction, leading to biodiversity loss.
Q2 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is a 'hotspot' of biodiversity? Mention any two criteria used to identify a biodiversity hotspot.
जैव विविधता का 'हॉटस्पॉट' क्या है? जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट की पहचान करने के लिए उपयोग किए जाने वाले किन्हीं दो मानदंडों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. Two criteria are: 1. High levels of species endemism (at least 1500 endemic plant species). 2. A high degree of habitat loss (at least 70% of its primary vegetation must have been lost).
Q3 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Explain the concept of 'Rivet Popper Hypothesis' as proposed by Paul Ehrlich. How does it relate to the importance of biodiversity?
पॉल एर्लिच द्वारा प्रस्तावित 'रिवेट पॉपर परिकल्पना' की अवधारणा को समझाइए। यह जैव विविधता के महत्व से कैसे संबंधित है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The Rivet Popper Hypothesis compares an ecosystem to an airplane, where each species is like a rivet. Loss of a few rivets (species) may not seem critical, but continuous loss weakens the plane (ecosystem) until it collapses. It highlights that every species contributes to ecosystem stability.
Q4 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What are 'hotspots' of biodiversity? Name two criteria used to identify a biodiversity hotspot.
जैव विविधता के 'हॉटस्पॉट' क्या हैं? जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट की पहचान के लिए उपयोग किए जाने वाले दो मानदंडों के नाम बताइए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high levels of species richness and a high degree of endemism, but are also under significant threat of habitat loss.
Criteria: 1. High species endemism (at least 1500 endemic vascular plant species). 2. High degree of threat (lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation).
Q5 • 3 Marks Short Answer
The 'Evil Quartet' describes the four major causes of biodiversity loss. Name and briefly explain any three of these causes.
'ईविल क्वार्टेट' जैव विविधता के ह्रास के चार प्रमुख कारणों का वर्णन करता है। इनमें से किन्हीं तीन कारणों का नाम बताइए और संक्षेप में व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation: Destruction of natural habitats. 2. Over-exploitation: Excessive use of resources beyond their regeneration capacity. 3. Alien species invasions: Introduction of non-native species that harm native ones. (Other option: Co-extinctions).
Q6 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Why is the Amazon rainforest considered the 'lungs of the planet'? Explain its significance in terms of biodiversity.
अमेज़न वर्षावन को 'ग्रह के फेफड़े' क्यों माना जाता है? जैव विविधता के संदर्भ में इसके महत्व की व्याख्या कीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The Amazon rainforest produces a significant portion of the Earth's oxygen through photosynthesis. It is a mega-biodiversity region, home to an immense number of species of plants, animals, and microorganisms, many of which are endemic and yet to be discovered. Its loss would have catastrophic global impacts.
Q7 • 3 Marks Short Answer
What is meant by 'habitat loss and fragmentation'? How do these two factors contribute to biodiversity loss?
'आवास हानि और विखंडन' से क्या तात्पर्य है? ये दोनों कारक जैव विविधता के नुकसान में कैसे योगदान करते हैं?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Habitat loss refers to the destruction or degradation of natural habitats, often due to human activities like deforestation or urbanization. Fragmentation is when large, continuous habitats are broken into smaller, isolated patches. Both reduce the total area available for species, isolate populations, restrict gene flow, and increase edge effects, making species more vulnerable to extinction.
Q8 • 3 Marks Short Answer
Differentiate between in situ and ex situ conservation methods, providing one example for each.
स्वस्थाने (in situ) और परस्थाने (ex situ) संरक्षण विधियों के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए, प्रत्येक का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
In situ conservation protects species in their natural habitat (e.g., National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries). Ex situ conservation protects species outside their natural habitat (e.g., Botanical Gardens, Zoological Parks, Gene Banks).
Q9 • 3 Marks Short Answer
How does habitat loss and fragmentation contribute to biodiversity loss? Provide a suitable example.
आवास हानि और विखंडन जैव विविधता के नुकसान में कैसे योगदान करते हैं? एक उपयुक्त उदाहरण दीजिए।
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
Habitat loss reduces the total area available for species, directly leading to population decline. Fragmentation breaks large habitats into smaller, isolated patches, restricting species movement and gene flow, making them more vulnerable. Example: Deforestation for agriculture.
Q10 • 3 Marks Short Answer
How is the 'species-area relationship' significant in understanding biodiversity patterns?
जैव विविधता के प्रतिरूपों को समझने में 'प्रजाति-क्षेत्र संबंध' कैसे महत्वपूर्ण है?
View Model Solution & Step Marking
Model Answer:
The species-area relationship states that species richness increases with increasing explored area, but only up to a certain limit. On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line, log S = log C + Z log A. This helps in predicting the number of species in a given area and understanding biodiversity hotspots.

Part B: Long Answer Questions & Derivations (5 Marks Each)

Q1 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Differentiate between in-situ and ex-situ conservation strategies, giving one example of each.
(b) A Royal Bengal Tiger is to be conserved. As a biologist, which conservation strategy would you recommend and why? Justify your choice with two reasons.
(a) स्व-स्थाने (इन-सिटू) और पर-स्थाने (एक्स-सिटू) संरक्षण रणनीतियों के बीच एक-एक उदाहरण देते हुए अंतर स्पष्ट करें।
(b) एक रॉयल बंगाल टाइगर का संरक्षण किया जाना है। एक जीवविज्ञानी के रूप में, आप कौन सी संरक्षण रणनीति की सिफारिश करेंगे और क्यों? दो कारणों के साथ अपनी पसंद का औचित्य सिद्ध करें।
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) In-situ (on-site) conservation involves protecting species within their natural habitats. This allows the entire ecosystem to be protected, and the species can continue to evolve in its natural environment. Example: National Parks, Sanctuaries.
Ex-situ (off-site) conservation involves protecting species outside their natural habitats in special settings. This is used for rare or endangered species that cannot be safely protected in the wild. Example: Zoological parks, Botanical gardens, Cryopreservation.
(b) For the Royal Bengal Tiger, the in-situ conservation strategy is highly recommended.
Reasons:
1. Ecosystem Protection: Conserving the tiger in its natural habitat (like a Tiger Reserve) also ensures the protection of its entire ecosystem, including its prey base (deer, wild boar) and forest habitat. This maintains ecological balance.
2. Natural Behavior and Evolution: In-situ conservation allows tigers to live, hunt, and reproduce in their natural environment, preserving their natural behaviors and allowing them to continue adapting and evolving. This is not possible in captivity (ex-situ).
Q2 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
A species-area relationship is a well-established pattern in ecology. An ecologist studying two different sites, Site A (a small island) and Site B (a large continental mainland), plots the species-area relationship for both.
(a) Write the equation for the species-area relationship on a logarithmic scale.
(b) How would the slope of the line (regression coefficient 'Z') differ between Site A and Site B? Explain the ecological reason for this difference.
(c) What is the typical range of the 'Z' value for small areas, and what does a much steeper slope signify?
जाति-क्षेत्र संबंध पारिस्थितिकी में एक सुस्थापित प्रतिरूप है। एक पारिस्थितिकीविद् दो अलग-अलग स्थलों, स्थल A (एक छोटा द्वीप) और स्थल B (एक बड़ा महाद्वीपीय मुख्य भूमि), का अध्ययन करते हुए दोनों के लिए जाति-क्षेत्र संबंध का आलेख बनाता है।
(क) लॉगरिथमिक पैमाने पर जाति-क्षेत्र संबंध का समीकरण लिखिए।
(ख) स्थल A और स्थल B के बीच रेखा का ढलान (समाश्रयण गुणांक 'Z') कैसे भिन्न होगा? इस अंतर का पारिस्थितिक कारण स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(ग) छोटे क्षेत्रों के लिए 'Z' मान की सामान्य परास क्या है, और एक बहुत तीव्र ढलान क्या दर्शाता है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The equation for the species-area relationship on a logarithmic scale is:
log S = log C + Z log A
Where S = Species richness, A = Area, Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient), and C = Y-intercept.

(b) The slope of the line ('Z') will be steeper for Site A (the island) compared to Site B (the continental mainland).
**Ecological Reason:** On islands (and other isolated habitats), species are more susceptible to extinction, and immigration from other areas is less frequent. This leads to a situation where an increase in area results in a more rapid accumulation of species compared to a continental area of the same size, where species are more widespread and can easily move between adjacent areas. Therefore, the species turnover rate is higher on islands, resulting in a steeper slope.

(c) The typical range for the 'Z' value for small or continental areas is 0.1 to 0.2. A much steeper slope (Z values in the range of 0.6 to 1.2) signifies that species richness increases very rapidly with an increase in area. This is characteristic of very large areas like entire continents or for specific taxonomic groups like frugivorous birds and mammals in tropical forests.
Q3 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) What is meant by 'biodiversity hotspot'?
(b) Name any two biodiversity hotspots in India.
(c) List the three main criteria that must be met for a region to be declared a biodiversity hotspot.
(d) Why is the 'hotspot' concept a practical approach for conservation planning?
(क) 'जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट' (तप्त स्थल) से क्या अभिप्राय है?
(ख) भारत में किन्हीं दो जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के नाम बताइए।
(ग) उन तीन मुख्य मानदंडों की सूची बनाइए जिन्हें किसी क्षेत्र को जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट घोषित करने के लिए पूरा किया जाना चाहिए।
(घ) संरक्षण योजना के लिए 'हॉटस्पॉट' की अवधारणा एक व्यावहारिक दृष्टिकोण क्यों है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) Biodiversity hotspots are regions with very high levels of species richness and a high degree of endemism (species confined to that region and not found anywhere else).

(b) Two biodiversity hotspots in India are: The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, and the Indo-Burma region. (Himalaya is also a valid answer).

(c) The three criteria for a region to be a biodiversity hotspot are:
1. **High Species Richness:** It must contain a large number of different species.
2. **High Degree of Endemism:** It must have a significant number of endemic species (species that are found nowhere else).
3. **High Degree of Threat:** It must have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.

(d) The hotspot concept is a practical approach because it allows conservation efforts and resources to be focused on areas where they can have the greatest impact. By protecting these hotspots, a very large number of species can be protected in a cost-effective manner, especially those that are most vulnerable to extinction.
Q4 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Differentiate between in-situ and ex-situ approaches to conservation of biodiversity. Give two examples of each.
(b) Why is the ex-situ conservation approach considered a secondary option for conserving a highly endangered terrestrial animal species?
(क) जैव विविधता के संरक्षण के लिए स्व-स्थाने (इन-सीटू) और बाह्य-स्थाने (एक्स-सीटू) उपागमों के बीच अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए। प्रत्येक के दो उदाहरण दीजिए।
(ख) एक अत्यधिक संकटग्रस्त स्थलीय जंतु प्रजाति के संरक्षण के लिए बाह्य-स्थाने संरक्षण उपागम को एक द्वितीयक विकल्प क्यों माना जाता है?
View Step-by-Step Proof & Solution
Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) **In-situ conservation:** This approach involves protecting species in their natural habitat. The entire ecosystem is protected. It is the on-site conservation of genetic resources in natural populations.
Examples: National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Biosphere Reserves, Sacred Groves.

**Ex-situ conservation:** This approach involves placing threatened animals and plants in special care units for their protection, away from their natural habitat. It is the conservation of biological diversity components outside their natural habitats.
Examples: Zoological parks, Botanical gardens, Cryopreservation (gene banks, seed banks).

(b) The ex-situ approach is a secondary option because:
1. It removes the species from its natural evolutionary pressures and ecological interactions.
2. It can be expensive and may not be feasible for all species.
3. The population size that can be maintained is limited due to space and resource constraints.
4. Reintroduction into the wild can be difficult and unsuccessful. Therefore, protecting the entire ecosystem (in-situ) is always the preferred and more holistic approach.
Q5 • 5 Marks Long Answer / Derivation
(a) Species diversity on Earth is not uniformly distributed. Explain the pattern of latitudinal gradient in biodiversity.
(b) State any three hypotheses proposed by ecologists to explain why the tropics show the greatest level of species richness.
(क) पृथ्वी पर प्रजातीय विविधता समान रूप से वितरित नहीं है। जैव विविधता में अक्षांशीय प्रवणता के प्रतिरूप की व्याख्या कीजिए।
(ख) पारिस्थितिकीविदों द्वारा यह समझाने के लिए प्रस्तावित कोई तीन परिकल्पनाएँ बताइए कि उष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में प्रजातियों की समृद्धि का स्तर सबसे अधिक क्यों होता है।
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Complete Derivation / Solution:
(a) The latitudinal gradient pattern shows that species diversity generally decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. The tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S) harbor more species than temperate or polar areas. For example, Colombia, located near the equator, has nearly 1,400 species of birds, while New York (41° N) has 105 species, and Greenland (71° N) only has 56 species.

(b) Three hypotheses to explain this pattern are:
1. **Speciation is a function of time:** Temperate regions were subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, while tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, thus allowing a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
2. **Tropical environments are less seasonal:** Tropical environments are more constant and predictable than temperate ones. This promotes niche specialization and leads to a greater species diversity.
3. **More solar energy is available in the tropics:** This contributes to higher productivity, which in turn might support a greater diversity of species indirectly.

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